JEE Main 2017 April 09 Question Paper with Solutions
All 89 questions from the JEE Main 2017 (April 09) shift — Physics (29), Chemistry (30) and Mathematics (30) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
A physical quantity P is described by the relation
P=a1/2b2c3d−4
If the relative errors in the measurement of a, b, c and d respectively, are 2%, 1%, 3% and 5%, then the relative error in P will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 332%
Approach:
For a product of powers, the maximum relative error is the sum of the magnitudes of each power times the corresponding relative error.
Step 1:Identify the powers of each quantity in P.
P=a1/2b2c3d−4
Step 2:Sum the products of power magnitude and relative error.
PΔP=21(2%)+2(1%)+3(3%)+4(5%)
Final answer: 32%
Q2Single correctKinematics
A car is standing 200 m behind a bus, which is also at rest. The two start moving at the same instant but with different forward accelerations. The bus has acceleration 2 m/s2 and the car has acceleration 4 m/s2. The car will catch up with the bus after a time of :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3102 s
Approach:
The car catches the bus when the extra distance covered by the car equals the initial 200 m gap.
Step 1:Write displacements of car and bus from rest.
scar=21(4)t2,sbus=21(2)t2
Step 2:Set the difference equal to the 200 m gap.
2t2−t2=200
Step 3:Solve for t.
t=200=102
Final answer: 102 s
Q3Single correctWork, Energy and Power
Two particles A and B of equal mass M are moving with the same speed v as shown in the figure. They collide completely inelastically and move as a single particle C. The angle θ that the path of C makes with the X-axis is given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1tanθ=1−23+2
Approach:
Conserve linear momentum in the X and Y directions. A approaches at 30 degrees from the downward vertical and B at 45 degrees from the downward vertical; the resultant momentum direction gives the angle of C.
Step 2:Resolve B's velocity (incoming, 135 degrees from +X axis).
vB=v(−cos45∘,sin45∘)
Step 3:Add momentum components.
px∝21−22,py∝23+22
Step 4:Form the tangent of the resultant angle.
tanθ=1−23+2
Final answer: tanθ=1−23+2
Q4Single correctKinematics
The machine as shown has 2 rods of length 1 m connected by a pivot at the top. The end of one rod is connected to the floor by a stationary pivot and the end of the other rod has a roller that rolls along the floor in a slot. As the roller goes back and forth, a 2 kg weight moves up and down. If the roller is moving towards right at a constant speed, the weight moves up with a :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2decreasing speed
Approach:
Relate the apex height to the half-base using the constant rod length, then differentiate to compare the weight's speed with the roller's speed.
Step 1:Let x be half the base and y the apex height; with rod length 1 m, x squared plus y squared equals 1.
y=1−x2
Step 2:Differentiate with respect to time.
dtdy=−1−x2xdtdx
Step 3:As the weight rises, the base shrinks so x decreases and y increases; hence the ratio x/y decreases.
x↓,y↑⇒yx↓
Final answer: decreasing speed
Q5Single correctLaws of Motion
A conical pendulum of length 1 m makes an angle θ=45∘ w.r.t. Z-axis and moves in a circle in the XY plane. The radius of the circle is 0.4 m and its center is vertically below O. The speed of the pendulum, in its circular path, will be : (Take g =10 ms−2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 42 m/s
Approach:
For a conical pendulum, the horizontal component of tension provides the centripetal force and the vertical component balances gravity.
Step 1:Apply the conical pendulum relation with r = 0.4 m and theta = 45 degrees.
v=rgtan45∘
Step 2:Evaluate.
v=4
Final answer: 2 m/s
Q6Single correctRotational Motion
A circular hole of radius 4R is made in a thin uniform disc having mass M and radius R, as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining portion of the disc about an axis passing through the point O and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2512237MR2
Approach:
Subtract the moment of inertia of the removed small disc (using the parallel axis theorem to shift it to O) from that of the full disc.
Step 1:Full disc MOI about O.
Ifull=21MR2
Step 2:Mass of removed disc of radius R/4.
m=MR2(R/4)2=16M
Step 3:MOI of removed disc about O (center at 3R/4 from O).
Ihole=21m(4R)2+m(43R)2=512MR2+2569MR2
Step 4:Subtract.
I=512256MR2−51219MR2
Final answer: 512237MR2
Q7Single correctGravitation
The mass density of a spherical body is given by ρ(r)=rk for r≤R and ρ(r)=0 for r>R, where r is the distance from the centre.
The correct graph that describes qualitatively the acceleration, a, of a test particle as a function of r is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2
Approach:
Find the mass enclosed within radius r, then use a = G M(r) / r2 for the regions inside and outside the body.
Step 1:Compute enclosed mass for r <= R.
M(r)=∫0rr′k4πr′2dr′=2πkr2
Step 2:Acceleration inside (r < R).
a=r2G2πkr2=2πkG
Step 3:Acceleration outside (r > R) with total mass 2 pi k R2.
a=r2G2πkR2∝r21
Final answer: Graph constant up to R, then decreasing as 1/r2 (option 2)
Q8Single correctProperties of Solids
A steel rail of length 5 m and area of cross section 40 cm2 is prevented from expanding along its length while the temperature rises by 10∘C. If coefficient of linear expansion and Young's modulus of steel are 1.2×10−5K−1 and 2×1011 Nm−2 respectively, the force developed in the rail is approximately :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21×105 N
Approach:
A constrained rod develops a thermal stress; the force equals Young's modulus times area times the prevented thermal strain.
Step 1:Substitute the values (A = 40 cm2 = 4e-3 m2).
F=(2×1011)(4×10−3)(1.2×10−5)(10)
Step 2:Evaluate.
F=9.6×104N
Final answer: 1×105 N
Q9Single correctMechanics of Fluids
Two tubes of radii r1 and r2, and lengths l1 and l2, respectively, are connected in series and a liquid flows through each of them in stream line conditions. P1 and P2 are pressure differences across the two tubes. If P2 is 4P1 and l2 is 4l1, then the radius r2 will be equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 42r1
Approach:
In series the volume flow rate Q is the same through both tubes; apply Poiseuille's law to each and take the ratio.
Step 1:Equal flow rate gives P proportional to l / r4.
l1P1r14=l2P2r24
Step 2:Form the pressure ratio.
P1P2=l1l2(r2r1)4
Step 3:Solve for r2.
(r2r1)4=16⇒r2r1=2
Final answer: 2r1
Q10Single correctThermodynamics
For the P-V diagram given for an ideal gas, out of the following which one correctly represents the T-P diagram ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3
Approach:
The given P-V curve satisfies PV = constant, which for an ideal gas means temperature is constant; the T-P plot must therefore be a horizontal line, traversed from high P (state 1) to low P (state 2).
Step 1:PV = constant implies nRT = constant, so T is constant.
PV=const⇒T=const
Step 2:On the T-P plane the locus is a horizontal line; the process goes from state 1 (high P) to state 2 (low P).
T=const,P1>P2
Final answer: Horizontal T-P line with state 1 at higher P and state 2 at lower P (option 3)
Q11Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases
N moles of a diatomic gas in a cylinder are at a temperature T. Heat is supplied to the cylinder such that the temperature remains constant but n moles of the diatomic gas get converted into monoatomic gas. What is the change in the total kinetic energy of the gas ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 121nRT
Approach:
Each diatomic molecule that dissociates yields two monoatomic atoms; compute the internal kinetic energy before and after at the same temperature.
Step 1:Initial kinetic energy of N moles diatomic.
A block of mass 0.1 kg is connected to an elastic spring of spring constant 640 Nm−1 and oscillates in a damping medium of damping constant 10−2 kg s−1. The system dissipates its energy gradually. The time taken for its mechanical energy of vibration to drop to half of its initial value, is closest to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 47 s
Approach:
In a damped oscillator the mechanical energy decays exponentially as E = E0 exp(-(b/m)t); set E = E0/2 and solve for t.
Step 1:Set the energy to half its initial value.
21=e−(b/m)t
Step 2:Substitute m = 0.1 kg and b = 1e-2 kg/s.
t=10−20.1ln2=10×0.693
Final answer: 7 s
Q13Single correctWaves
A standing wave is formed by the superposition of two waves travelling in opposite directions. The transverse displacement is given by
y(x,t)=0.5sin(45πx)cos(200πt).
What is the speed of the travelling wave moving in the positive x direction ?
(x and t are in meter and second, respectively.)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1160 m/s
Approach:
Read the wave number k and angular frequency omega from the standing wave expression; the component wave speed is omega divided by k.
Step 1:Identify k and omega.
k=45π,ω=200π
Step 2:Compute the speed.
v=5π/4200π=5200×4
Final answer: 160 m/s
Q14Single correctElectrostatics
Four closed surfaces and corresponding charge distributions are shown below.
Let the respective electric fluxes through the surfaces be Φ1,Φ2,Φ3 and Φ4. Then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
Approach:
By Gauss's law the flux through each closed surface equals the net enclosed charge divided by epsilon-naught; compute the net enclosed charge for each surface.
Step 1:Net charge inside each surface from the figure.
Step 2:Flux is proportional to enclosed charge; Phi3 is the largest and the others are equal.
Φ3>Φ1=Φ2=Φ4
Final answer: Φ1=Φ2=Φ3=Φ4
Q15Single correctElectrostatics
A combination of parallel plate capacitors is maintained at a certain potential difference.
When a 3 mm thick slab is introduced between all the plates, in order to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the plates is increased by 2.4 mm. Find the dielectric constant of the slab.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 35
Approach:
Inserting a dielectric slab of thickness t reduces the effective air gap by t(1 - 1/K); to keep the capacitance (hence the potential difference at fixed charge) unchanged, the plate separation must be increased by exactly that amount.
Step 1:Equate the required increase to the gap reduction.
t(1−K1)=2.4
Step 2:Solve for K.
1−K1=0.8⇒K1=0.2
Final answer: 5
Q16Single correctCurrent Electricity
A uniform wire of length l and radius r has a resistance of 100 Ω. It is recast into a wire of radius 2r. The resistance of new wire will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11600 Ω
Approach:
Resistance varies with length and cross-sectional area. On recasting, the volume of the wire is conserved, which fixes the new length once the new radius is given.
Step 1:New radius is half the original, so the new area is one quarter.
A2=π(2r)2=4A1
Step 2:Volume is conserved, giving the new length.
A1L=A2L2⇒L2=4L
Step 3:Apply the resistance ratio.
R2=R1L1L2A2A1=100×4×4
Final answer: 1600 Ω
Q17Single correctCurrent Electricity
The figure shows three circuits I, II and III which are connected to a 3V battery. If the powers dissipated by the configurations I, II and III are P1, P2 and P3 respectively, then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3P2>P1>P3
Approach:
Each network is reduced to an equivalent resistance across the 3V source. With a fixed source voltage, dissipated power varies inversely with equivalent resistance, so the lowest resistance dissipates the most power.
Step 1:Circuit I is a balanced bridge of unit resistors; the bridging resistor carries no current, giving two 2 ohm paths in parallel.
R1=2Ω∥2Ω=1Ω
Step 2:Circuit II places two 2 ohm paths and a direct 1 ohm bridge resistor in parallel across the source.
R2=2Ω∥2Ω∥1Ω=0.5Ω
Step 3:Circuit III is a 1 ohm bridge (two 2 ohm paths in parallel) in series with an extra 1 ohm resistor.
R3=(2Ω∥2Ω)+1Ω=2Ω
Step 4:Compute the powers from P = V2/R with V = 3V.
P1=9,P2=18,P3=4.5W
Final answer: P2>P1>P3
Q18Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism
A negative test charge is moving near a long straight wire carrying a current. The force acting on the test charge is parallel to the direction of the current. The motion of the charge is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2towards the wire
Approach:
The magnetic field of the straight wire is azimuthal (circular). The force on the charge is q(v x B). Working out the cross product for a velocity directed radially toward the wire shows the force lies along the current direction for a negative charge.
Step 1:Take the current along the x-axis. At a point on the +y side the field points along +z.
B^=x^×y^=z^
Step 2:Let the negative charge move toward the wire, i.e. along -y.
v=−y^
Step 3:Evaluate the force for q < 0.
F=(−∣q∣)(−y^)×z^=+∣q∣x^
Final answer: towards the wire
Q19Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism
A uniform magnetic field B of 0.3 T is along the positive Z-direction. A rectangular loop (abcd) of sides 10 cm × 5 cm carries a current I of 12 A. Out of the following different orientations which one corresponds to stable equilibrium ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3
Approach:
A current loop is a magnetic dipole with moment m = I A n-hat, the normal fixed by the right-hand rule following the current sense. Stable equilibrium occurs when the magnetic moment is parallel to the external field (potential energy minimum).
Step 1:Stable equilibrium requires the magnetic moment to point along +Z, parallel to B.
m∥B(+z^)
Step 2:Evaluating the current sense for each option, only option 3 has the loop in the X-Y plane with a circulation giving a +Z moment.
m(3)=IAz^
Step 3:The other orientations give a moment along X or along -Z, which are unstable or perpendicular configurations.
Umin=−mB
Final answer: Option 3 (magnetic moment along +Z, parallel to B)
Q20Single correctAlternating Current
A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 283 V and angular frequency 320/s is applied to a series LCR circuit. Given that R =5Ω, L =25 mH and C =1000μF. The total impedance, and phase difference between the voltage across the source and the current will respectively be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 27 Ω and 45∘
Approach:
Compute the inductive and capacitive reactances, find the net reactance, then the magnitude of impedance and the phase angle of a series LCR circuit.
Step 1:Reactances at omega = 320 rad/s.
XL=320×0.025=8Ω,XC=320×10−31≈3Ω
Step 2:Net reactance and impedance.
X=XL−XC≈5Ω,Z=52+52≈7Ω
Step 3:Phase angle.
tanϕ=55=1⇒ϕ=45∘
Final answer: 7 Ω and 45∘
Q21Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
The electric field component of a monochromatic radiation is given byE=2E0i^coskzcosωtItsmagneticfieldB is then given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3c2E0j^sinkzsinωt
Approach:
This is a standing electromagnetic wave with E along x. Faraday's law gives the magnetic field from the spatial derivative of E, integrated in time.
Step 1:Only Ex is nonzero and depends on z, so the curl has a y-component equal to the z-derivative of Ex.
(∇×E)y=∂z∂Ex=−2E0ksinkzcosωt
Step 2:Integrate -curl in time to get By.
By=−∫∂z∂Exdt=ω2E0ksinkzsinωt
Step 3:Substitute k/omega = 1/c.
B=c2E0j^sinkzsinωt
Final answer: c2E0j^sinkzsinωt
Q22Single correctRay Optics
In an experiment a convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed coaxially on an optical bench in front of a convex mirror at a distance of 5 cm from it. It is found that an object and its image coincide, if the object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the lens. The focal length of the convex mirror is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 127.5 cm
Approach:
For the object and image to coincide, rays after the lens must strike the convex mirror normally and retrace their path, which means the lens forms its image at the centre of curvature of the mirror. Locate the lens image, then equate its distance behind the mirror to the radius of curvature.
Step 1:Lens image with u = -20 cm and f = +15 cm.
v1=151+−201⇒v=60cm
Step 2:The mirror is 5 cm behind the lens, so the converging point lies 55 cm behind the mirror. This must be the centre of curvature.
R=60−5=55cm
Step 3:Mirror focal length.
fm=2R=255=27.5cm
Final answer: 27.5 cm
Q23Single correctWave Optics
A single slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of wavelength 6000 A∘ and diffraction bands are observed on a screen 0.5 m from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central bright band is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 29 mm
Approach:
In single slit diffraction, dark bands (minima) occur where the path difference equals an integer multiple of the wavelength. The linear position on the screen follows from the small-angle approximation.
Step 1:List the data in SI units.
a=10−4m,λ=6×10−7m,D=0.5m
Step 2:Use n = 3 for the third dark band.
y3=10−43×6×10−7×0.5
Step 3:Evaluate.
y3=9×10−3m=9mm
Final answer: 9 mm
Q24Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter
A Laser light of wavelength 660 nm is used to weld Retina detachment. If a Laser pulse of width 60 ms and power 0.5 kW is used the number of photons in the pulse are : [Take Planck's constant h =6.62×10−34 Js]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11020
Approach:
Find the total energy delivered by the pulse, divide by the energy of a single photon to get the photon count.
Step 1:Total energy in the pulse.
E=0.5×103×60×10−3=30J
Step 2:Energy of one photon.
Eph=660×10−96.62×10−34×3×108≈3×10−19J
Step 3:Photon count.
N=3×10−1930≈1020
Final answer: 1020
Q25Single correctAtoms
The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the hydrogen atom (n =1) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 34π2m2r3h2
Approach:
Use Bohr's quantization to express the orbital speed of the electron, then compute the centripetal acceleration v2/r.
Step 1:Speed for n = 1.
v=2πmrh
Step 2:Centripetal acceleration.
a=rv2=r1(2πmrh)2
Step 3:Simplify.
a=4π2m2r3h2
Final answer: 4π2m2r3h2
Q26Single correctNuclei
Imagine that a reactor converts all given mass into energy and that it operates at a power level of 109 watt. The mass of the fuel consumed per hour in the reactor will be : (velocity of light, c is 3×108 m/s)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 34×10−2 gm
Approach:
The energy produced in one hour equals the power times time. Convert this energy to mass using Einstein's mass-energy relation.
Step 1:Energy in one hour (t = 3600 s).
E=109×3600=3.6×1012J
Step 2:Mass from E = mc2.
m=c2E=(3×108)23.6×1012
Step 3:Evaluate.
m=4×10−5kg=4×10−2g
Final answer: 4×10−2 gm
Q27Single correctSemiconductor Electronics
The current gain of a common emitter amplifier is 69. If the emitter current is 7.0 mA, collector current is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 26.9 mA
Approach:
The common emitter current gain beta relates collector and base currents. Combine with the emitter current relation to express collector current in terms of the emitter current.
Step 1:Express base current and substitute.
IE=IC+βIC=ICββ+1
Step 2:Solve for collector current.
IC=IEβ+1β=7.0×7069
Step 3:Evaluate.
IC=6.9mA
Final answer: 6.9 mA
Q29Single correctCurrent Electricity
In a meter bridge experiment resistances are connected as shown in the figure. Initially resistance P =4Ω and the neutral point N is at 60 cm from A. Now an unknown resistance R is connected in series to P and the new position of the neutral point is at 80 cm from A. The value of unknown resistance R is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4320Ω
Approach:
The meter bridge balance condition relates the ratio of the two resistances to the ratio of the bridge lengths. First find Q from the initial balance, then use the second balance with P + R to solve for R.
Step 1:Initial balance at 60 cm gives Q.
Q4=4060⇒Q=38Ω
Step 2:New balance at 80 cm with series resistance P + R.
QP+R=2080=4
Step 3:Solve for R.
R=4Q−P=4×38−4=320Ω
Final answer: 320Ω
Q30Single correctOscillations
In an experiment to determine the period of a simple pendulum of length 1 m, it is attached to different spherical bobs of radii r1 and r2. The two spherical bobs have uniform mass distribution. If the relative difference in the periods, is found to be 5×10−4 s, the difference in radii, ∣r1−r2∣ is best given by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 20.1 cm
Approach:
The effective length of the pendulum is the string length plus the bob radius. The period depends on the square root of the effective length, so a small change in radius produces a relative change in period equal to half the relative change in effective length.
Step 1:Since r is much smaller than L, the effective length is approximately L = 1 m.
TΔT=21L∣r1−r2∣
Step 2:Solve for the radius difference.
∣r1−r2∣=2LTΔT=2×1×5×10−4
Step 3:Evaluate.
∣r1−r2∣=10−3m=0.1cm
Final answer: 0.1 cm
Chemistry30 questions
Q31Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
An ideal gas undergoes isothermal expansion at constant pressure. During the process :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases.
Approach:
For an ideal gas, enthalpy is a function of temperature only; an isothermal process keeps temperature constant, so enthalpy does not change. Expansion increases the accessible volume, raising entropy.
Step 1:Isothermal process means constant temperature; since H depends only on T for an ideal gas, enthalpy is constant.
ΔT=0⇒ΔH=0
Step 2:Expansion increases volume, so the entropy of the gas increases.
V2>V1⇒ΔS=nRlnV1V2>0
Final answer: enthalpy remains constant but entropy increases.
Q32Single correctEquilibrium
50 mL of 0.2 M ammonia solution is treated with 25 mL of 0.2 M HCl. If pKb of ammonia solution is 4.75, the pH of the mixture will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 49.25
Approach:
Find millimoles of NH3 and HCl, identify the basic buffer formed after partial neutralisation, then apply the Henderson equation for a base.
Step 1:Compute millimoles: ammonia and HCl.
nNH3=50×0.2=10,nHCl=25×0.2=5
Step 2:HCl converts 5 mmol NH3 to NH4Cl, leaving 5 mmol NH3 and 5 mmol NH4+ (equal amounts).
[salt]=[base]
Step 3:Apply Henderson for base.
pOH=4.75+log1=4.75
Step 4:Convert to pH.
pH=14−4.75=9.25
Final answer: 9.25
Q33Single correctAtomic Structure
The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbitals to orbital of radius 211.6 pm. This transition is associated with :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Balmer series
Approach:
Use the Bohr radius formula to find the principal quantum number of the target orbital, then identify the spectral series by the lower level.
Step 1:Solve for n using the given radius.
n2=52.9211.6=4⇒n=2
Step 2:Transitions ending at n = 2 belong to the Balmer series.
nf=2⇒Balmer
Final answer: Balmer series
Q34Single correctStates of Matter
At 300 K, the density of a certain gaseous molecule at 2 bar is double to that of dinitrogen (N2) at 4 bar. The molar mass of gaseous molecule is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3112g mol−1
Approach:
Express gas density from the ideal gas equation, set up the doubling relation between the unknown gas and dinitrogen, and solve for the molar mass.
Step 1:Write density of the unknown gas and of N2.
ρ1=RT(2)M,ρN2=RT(4)(28)
Step 2:Apply the condition density of unknown is double that of N2.
RT2M=2×RT(4)(28)
Step 3:Solve for M.
M=2224=112
Final answer: 112g mol−1
Q35Single correctSome Basic Concepts in Chemistry
What quantity (in mL) of a 45% acid solution of a mono-protic strong acid must be mixed with a 20% solution of the same acid to produce 800 mL of a 29.875% acid solution ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3316
Approach:
Set up a mass (volume-percent) balance: the acid contributed by both solutions equals the acid in the final mixture.
Step 1:Let x mL be the 45% solution, so (800 - x) mL is the 20% solution.
45x+20(800−x)=29.875×800
Step 2:Expand and simplify.
45x+16000−20x=23900
Step 3:Solve for x.
x=257900=316
Final answer: 316
Q36Single correctElectrochemistry
To find the standard potential of M3+/M electrode, the following cell is constituted : Pt/M/M3+(0.001mol L−1)/Ag+(0.01mol L−1)/Ag. The emf of the cell is found to be 0.421 volt at 298 K. The standard potential of half reaction M3++3e−→M at 298 K will be : (Given EAg+/Ag⊖ at 298 K =0.80 Volt)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 20.32 Volt
Approach:
Apply the Nernst equation to both half-cells to get their actual potentials, then use cell emf equals cathode minus anode to solve for the unknown standard potential.
Step 1:Silver is the cathode (reduction). Compute its potential.
EAg=0.80+0.0591log(0.01)=0.80−0.1182=0.6818V
Step 2:M is the anode. Its electrode potential (reduction form).
EM=E⊖+30.0591log(0.001)=E⊖−0.0591V
Step 3:Use cell emf relation and solve.
0.421=0.6818−(E⊖−0.0591)
Final answer: 0.32 Volt
Q37Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
A gas undergoes change from state A to state B. In this process, the heat absorbed and work done by the gas is 5 J and 8 J, respectively. Now gas is brought back to A by another process during which 3 J of heat is evolved. In this reverse process of B to A :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 46 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas.
Approach:
Use the first law to find the internal energy change for A to B; since internal energy is a state function, the reverse path has the opposite change, allowing the work in the reverse step to be found.
Step 1:For A to B with q = 5 J absorbed and w = 8 J done by gas.
ΔUA→B=5−8=−3J
Step 2:Reverse process B to A: state function reverses sign.
ΔUB→A=+3J
Step 3:For B to A, 3 J of heat evolved so q = -3 J. Solve for work done by gas.
3=−3−w⇒w=−6J
Step 4:Negative work by gas means surroundings do 6 J of work on the gas.
wby gas=−6J
Final answer: 6 J of the work will be done by the surrounding on gas.
Q38Single correctSurface Chemistry
Adsorption of a gas on a surface follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. Plot of logmx versus log p gives a straight line with slope equal to 0.5, then : (mx is the mass of the gas adsorbed per gram of adsorbent)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Adsorption is proportional to the square root of pressure.
Approach:
Take the logarithmic form of the Freundlich isotherm; the slope of the log-log plot equals 1/n, which sets the power of pressure.
Step 1:Identify the slope of the log-log plot with 1/n.
n1=0.5
Step 2:Substitute into the isotherm.
mx=kp0.5=kp
Final answer: Adsorption is proportional to the square root of pressure.
Q39Single correctChemical Kinetics
The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 300 to 310 K. The activation energy of this reaction is : (Assume activation energy and pre-exponential factor are independent of temperature; ln 2 =0.693; R =8.314 J mol−1K−1)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1107.2kJ mol−1
Approach:
Use the two-temperature form of the Arrhenius equation with the rate-constant ratio of 4 and solve for the activation energy.
Step 1:Rate quadruples, so the ratio is 4.
ln4=2ln2=1.386
Step 2:Compute the temperature term.
3001−3101=9300010=1.075×10−4
Step 3:Solve for activation energy.
Ea=1.075×10−48.314×1.386≈1.072×105J mol−1
Final answer: 107.2kJ mol−1
Q40Single correctSolutions
A solution is prepared by mixing 8.5 g of CH2Cl2 and 11.95 g of CHCl3. If vapour pressure of CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 at 298 K are 415 and 200 mmHg respectively, the mole fraction of CHCl3 in vapour form is : (Molar mass of Cl =35.5 g mol−1)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 30.325
Approach:
Compute moles and liquid mole fractions, apply Raoult's law for partial pressures, then use Dalton's law to obtain the vapour-phase mole fraction of CHCl3.
Step 1:Molar masses and moles.
MCH2Cl2=85,MCHCl3=119.5;n=0.1,0.1
Step 2:Liquid mole fractions are equal.
xCH2Cl2=xCHCl3=0.5
Step 3:Partial pressures by Raoult's law.
pCH2Cl2=207.5,pCHCl3=100
Step 4:Vapour mole fraction of CHCl3.
yCHCl3=307.5100=0.325
Final answer: 0.325
Q41Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity
The electronic configuration with the highest ionization enthalpy is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3[Ne]3s23p3
Approach:
Identify the elements behind each configuration and compare ionization enthalpies using periodic trends and half-filled stability.
Step 1:Identify elements: Al, Si, P, As respectively.
[Ne]3s23p1=Al;3p2=Si;3p3=P;[Ar]...4p3=As
Step 2:Phosphorus has an exactly half-filled 3p subshell giving extra stability and a higher ionization enthalpy.
3p3half-filled
Step 3:Phosphorus is smaller and above arsenic, so its ionization enthalpy exceeds that of As, Si and Al.
IE(P)>IE(As),IE(Si),IE(Al)
Final answer: [Ne]3s23p3
Q42Single correctEquilibrium
The following reaction occurs in the Blast Furnace where iron ore is reduced to iron metal : Fe2O3(s)+3CO(g)⇌2Fe(l)+3CO2(g). Using the Le Chatelier's principle, predict which one of the following will not disturb the equilibrium ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Addition of Fe2O3
Approach:
Recognise that pure solids and pure liquids do not appear in the equilibrium expression, so changing their amounts cannot shift the equilibrium, while changing gaseous species does.
Step 1:Fe2O3 is a pure solid; its activity is unity and absent from Kp.
aFe2O3=1
Step 2:Adding a pure solid does not change concentrations of gases, so equilibrium is undisturbed.
Qpunchanged
Final answer: Addition of Fe2O3
Q43Single corrects-Block Elements
Which one of the following is an oxide ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3SiO2
Approach:
Classify each compound by the oxidation state of oxygen: a normal oxide contains O in the -2 state, while peroxides and superoxides contain O-O linkages.
Step 1:KO2 and CsO2 contain the superoxide ion O2 minus (oxygen -1/2).
KO2,CsO2→superoxides
Step 2:BaO2 contains the peroxide ion O2 two-minus (oxygen -1).
BaO2→peroxide
Step 3:SiO2 contains oxide ions with oxygen in -2 state.
SiO2→oxide
Final answer: SiO2
Q44Single correctEnvironmental Chemistry
Which of the following is a set of green house gases ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4CO2,CH4,N2O,O3
Approach:
Recall the standard list of greenhouse gases and select the option in which every species qualifies.
Step 1:Recognised greenhouse gases include CO2, CH4, N2O, O3, water vapour and CFCs.
CO2,CH4,N2O,O3
Step 2:N2, SO2 and Cl2 are not greenhouse gases, eliminating the other options.
N2,SO2,Cl2→not GHG
Final answer: CO2,CH4,N2O,O3
Q45Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
The group having triangular planar structures is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2CO32−,NO3−,SO3
Approach:
Apply VSEPR theory to each species; a trigonal (triangular) planar geometry requires three bonding regions and no lone pair on the central atom.
Step 1:CO3 2-, NO3 - and SO3 each have a central atom with three regions and no lone pair, giving trigonal planar geometry.
CO32−,NO3−,SO3→trigonal planar
Step 2:NF3, NH3 and NCl3 have a lone pair on nitrogen and are pyramidal, so options 1, 3 and 4 are rejected.
NF3,NH3,NCl3→pyramidal
Final answer: CO32−,NO3−,SO3
Q46Single correctp-Block Elements
XeF6 on partial hydrolysis with water produces a compound 'X'. The same compound 'X' is formed when XeF6 reacts with silica. The compound 'X' is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3XeOF4
Approach:
Identify the product common to both partial hydrolysis of XeF6 and its reaction with silica.
Step 1:Partial (incomplete) hydrolysis of XeF6 replaces two fluorine atoms by one oxygen, giving XeOF4.
XeF6+H2O→XeOF4+2HF
Step 2:Reaction of XeF6 with silica also yields XeOF4 (plus SiF4), confirming the same product.
2XeF6+SiO2→2XeOF4+SiF4
Final answer: XeOF4
Q47Single correctp-Block Elements
The number of P−OH bonds and the oxidation state of phosphorus atom in pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O7) respectively are :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4four and five
Approach:
Draw the structure of pyrophosphoric acid and count P-OH bonds; compute the oxidation state of P.
Step 1:Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7 has two PO4 tetrahedra sharing one bridging oxygen. Each phosphorus carries two terminal OH groups, so total P-OH bonds = 4.
(HO)2P(=O)−O−P(=O)(OH)2
Step 2:Apply oxidation-state balance with H = +1, O = -2.
4(+1)+2x+7(−2)=0⇒2x=10⇒x=+5
Final answer: four and five
Q48Single correctd- and f-Block Elements
Which of the following ions does not liberate hydrogen gas on reaction with dilute acids ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Mn2+
Approach:
An M2+ ion liberates H2 (is oxidised to M3+) only if its M3+/M2+ standard potential is negative. Compare across the listed ions.
Step 1:Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ have negative M3+/M2+ potentials, so they act as reducing agents and reduce H+ to H2 while being oxidised to M3+.
EV3+/V2+∘=−0.26V,ECr3+/Cr2+∘=−0.41V
Step 2:Mn3+/Mn2+ potential is large and positive, so Mn2+ cannot be oxidised by H+; therefore Mn2+ does not liberate hydrogen.
EMn3+/Mn2+∘=+1.51V
Final answer: Mn2+
Q49Single correctp-Block Elements
The correct sequence of decreasing number of π-bonds in the structures of H2SO3, H2SO4 and H2S2O7 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3H2S2O7>H2SO4>H2SO3
Approach:
Count the number of S=O (pi) bonds in each oxoacid structure.
Step 1:H2SO3 has structure (HO)2S=O with one S=O double bond, giving 1 pi-bond.
(HO)2S=O
Step 2:H2SO4 has structure (HO)2S(=O)2 with two S=O double bonds, giving 2 pi-bonds.
(HO)2S(=O)2
Step 3:H2S2O7 (pyrosulfuric acid) has two SO3H units joined by a bridging O; each S carries two S=O bonds, giving 4 pi-bonds total.
(HO)(O)2S−O−S(O)2(OH)
Final answer: H2S2O7>H2SO4>H2SO3
Q50Single correctCoordination Compounds
[Co2(CO)8] displays :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Approach:
Recall the bridged structure of dicobalt octacarbonyl.
Step 1:The stable (solid) form of Co2(CO)8 contains a direct Co-Co bond.
Co−Co
Step 2:Of the eight CO ligands, six are terminal (three on each Co) and two bridge the two cobalt atoms.
(CO)3Co(μ-CO)2Co(CO)3
Final answer: one Co−Co bond, six terminal CO and two bridging CO
Q51Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
A compound of molecular formula C8H8O2 reacts with acetophenone to form a single cross-aldol product in the presence of base. The same compound on reaction with conc. NaOH forms benzyl alcohol as one of the products. The structure of the compound is :
The compound must be an aromatic aldehyde lacking alpha-hydrogen so it gives a clean cross-aldol with acetophenone and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction with conc. NaOH to yield benzyl alcohol.
Step 1:Conc. NaOH converts the compound into benzyl alcohol, characteristic of the Cannizzaro reaction, which requires an aldehyde with no alpha-hydrogen (an aromatic aldehyde).
2ArCHO+NaOH→ArCH2OH+ArCOONa
Step 2:Molecular formula C8H8O2 with an ArCHO unit and a second oxygen corresponds to para-methoxybenzaldehyde (anisaldehyde), CH3O-C6H4-CHO.
CH3O−C6H4−CHO
Step 3:Having no alpha-hydrogen, it forms a single cross-aldol product with the alpha-hydrogens of acetophenone.
CH3O-C6H4-CHO+C6H5COCH3
Final answer: para-methoxybenzaldehyde (CH3O-C6H4-CHO)
Q52Single correctHydrocarbons
Which of the following compounds is most reactive to an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 31,3-cyclopentadiene (five-membered ring with two double bonds)
Approach:
Reactivity toward aqueous Na2CO3 reflects acidity; the most acidic C-H, on deprotonation, gives the most stabilised (aromatic) carbanion.
Step 1:Loss of a proton from the sp3 CH2 of 1,3-cyclopentadiene generates the cyclopentadienyl anion, which is aromatic (6 pi electrons, Huckel's rule).
C5H6→C5H5−+H+
Step 2:This aromatic stabilisation makes cyclopentadiene the most acidic (pKa around 16) among the given cyclic alkenes/dienes, so it is most reactive toward the weak base Na2CO3.
pKa(C5H6)≈16
Final answer: 1,3-cyclopentadiene (five-membered ring with two double bonds)
Q53Single correctBasic Principles of Organic Chemistry
In the following structure, the double bonds are marked as I, II, III and IV. Geometrical isomerism is not possible at site (s) :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2I
Approach:
Geometrical isomerism requires each doubly-bonded carbon to bear two different substituents; a carbon with two identical groups precludes it.
Step 1:At site I the terminal carbon of the double bond is a =C(CH3)2 carbon bearing two identical methyl groups.
=C(CH3)2
Step 2:Since one alkene carbon at site I carries two equal groups, cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism is not possible there, whereas sites II, III and IV each have two different substituents on both carbons.
=C(CH3)2⇒no E/Z
Final answer: I
Q54Single correctHydrocarbons
The major product of the following reaction is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2tertiary allylic bromide: Br on the methyl-bearing allylic carbon with ring double bond retained
Approach:
Br2 with light (hv) and low Br2 concentration favours free-radical allylic substitution; the most stable allylic radical determines the major product.
Step 1:Under Br2/hv, allylic substitution proceeds via abstraction of an allylic hydrogen, not electrophilic addition.
R-H+Br⋅→R⋅+HBr
Step 2:Abstraction at the methyl-substituted allylic carbon gives the most stable (tertiary, resonance-stabilised) allylic radical; recombination with Br places Br on that carbon while the double bond is retained.
R⋅+Br2→R-Br+Br⋅
Final answer: tertiary allylic bromide: Br on the methyl-bearing allylic carbon with ring double bond retained
Q55Single correctBiomolecules
The incorrect statement among the following is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are enantiomers.
Approach:
Evaluate each statement about glucose chemistry to find the false one.
Step 1:Alpha- and beta-D-glucose differ only in configuration at the anomeric (C1) carbon, so they are anomers (statement 1 correct). They are diastereomers, not non-superimposable mirror images, so they are NOT enantiomers (statement 2 is incorrect).
anomers (C1 only)=enantiomers
Step 2:Cellulose is indeed a straight-chain polymer of beta-D-glucose (statement 3 correct), and glucose pentaacetate has no free -CHO/hemiacetal -OH, so it does not react with hydroxylamine (statement 4 correct).
(C6H7O2(OAc)3)n
Final answer: α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are enantiomers.
Q56Single correctPolymers
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1nylon-2-nylon-6 (copolymer of glycine and amino caproic acid)
Approach:
Identify the polymer composed of naturally occurring amino-acid-type monomers, which is biodegradable.
Step 1:Option 1 is nylon-2-nylon-6, an alternating polyamide of glycine (H2N-CH2-COOH) and amino caproic acid (H2N-(CH2)5-COOH); these biological-type monomers make it biodegradable.
[NH-CH2-CO-NH-(CH2)5-CO]n
Step 2:Nylon-6 (option 2) and nylon-6,6 (option 3) are non-biodegradable polyamides, and option 4 is a synthetic polyester that is not biodegradable here.
nylon-6,nylon-6,6⇒non-biodegradable
Final answer: nylon-2-nylon-6 (copolymer of glycine and amino caproic acid)
The increasing order of the boiling points for the following compounds is : C2H5OH (I), C2H5Cl (II), C2H5CH3 (III), C2H5OCH3 (IV)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1(III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)
Approach:
Order boiling points by intermolecular forces: hydrogen bonding > dipole-dipole > van der Waals.
Step 1:III is propane (C2H5CH3), a nonpolar alkane with only weak London forces, so it has the lowest boiling point (about -42 C).
C2H5CH3,bp≈−42∘C
Step 2:IV is methoxyethane (an ether) with weak dipole interactions (bp about 7 C); II is ethyl chloride, more polar/polarisable (bp about 12 C).
IV≈7∘C<II≈12∘C
Step 3:I is ethanol, which forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds, giving the highest boiling point (78 C).
C2H5OH,bp=78∘C
Final answer: (III) < (IV) < (II) < (I)
Q58Single correctBasic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Which of the following compounds will show highest dipole moment ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1(I)
Approach:
Greatest charge separation gives the highest dipole moment; a carbonyl whose ring becomes aromatic on shifting electron density shows an exceptionally large dipole.
Step 1:In cyclopropenone (I), shifting the carbonyl pi electrons toward oxygen leaves an aromatic cyclopropenyl cation (2 pi electrons) in the ring, strongly stabilising the charge-separated form.
ring→aromatic C3H2+,O−
Step 2:This aromatic stabilisation makes the dipole moment of cyclopropenone (about 4.8 D) the largest among the listed carbonyl compounds.
μ(cyclopropenone)≈4.78D
Step 3:p-Benzoquinone (IV) has two opposed C=O dipoles that partly cancel, lowering its net dipole, while II and III lack the strong aromatic cation stabilisation of I.
Immediate turbidity in the Lucas test means III is a tertiary alcohol; work backward through the Grignard step and the hydrolysis of the dihalide.
Step 1:Immediate turbidity with anhydrous ZnCl2 + conc. HCl (Lucas reagent) identifies III as a tertiary alcohol.
R3C-OHLucasimmediate turbidity
Step 2:A tertiary alcohol from CH3MgBr addition requires II to be a ketone. The only C3 ketone here is acetone.
CH3COCH3+CH3MgBr→(CH3)3C-OH
Step 3:Acetone forms by hydrolysis of a gem-dihalide; the gem-dichloride C3H6Cl2 is 2,2-dichloropropane, CH3-CCl2-CH3.
CH3CCl2CH3KOH(aq)CH3COCH3
Final answer: CH3−CCl2−CH3 (2,2-dichloropropane)
Q60Single correctAmines
Among the following compounds, the increasing order of their basic strength is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3(II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
Approach:
Basicity depends on availability of the nitrogen lone pair; lone pairs locked in aromatic systems or delocalised into rings are least available.
Step 1:In pyrrole (II) the nitrogen lone pair is part of the aromatic sextet, so it is essentially unavailable; pyrrole is the weakest base.
pyrrole: lone pair in aromatic ring
Step 2:In aniline (I) the lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring, so it is more basic than pyrrole but less basic than the aliphatic amines.
C6H5NH2:lone pair on N, partly delocalised
Step 3:Cyclohexylamine (IV) is a primary aliphatic amine with a fully available lone pair; N-methylpiperidine (III) is a tertiary aliphatic amine, the most basic of these due to alkyl electron donation.
IV (1∘) < III (3∘ aliphatic)
Final answer: (II) < (I) < (IV) < (III)
Mathematics30 questions
Q61Single correctSets, Relations and Functions
The function f:N→N defined by f(x)=x−5[5x], where N is the set of natural numbers and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4neither one-one nor onto.
Approach:
Interpret the rule and test injectivity and surjectivity on the domain and codomain of natural numbers.
Step 1:Identify the output set.
f(x)=xmod5∈{0,1,2,3,4}
Step 2:Check onto.
5,6∈N map to 0,1 but values such as 6 are never attained as a remainder; range ⊂N is not all of N
Step 3:Check one-one.
f(1)=f(6)=1
Final answer: neither one-one nor onto.
Q62Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
The sum of all the real values of x satisfying the equation 2(x−1)(x2+5x−50)=1 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3−4
Approach:
Since the base is 2, the equation holds when the exponent equals zero; sum the resulting roots.
Step 1:Set exponent to zero.
(x−1)(x2+5x−50)=0
Step 2:Solve each factor.
x=1 or (x+10)(x−5)=0
Step 3:Add the roots.
1+(−10)+5=−4
Final answer: −4
Q63Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
The equation Im(z−iiz−2)+1=0,z∈C,z=i represents a part of a circle having radius equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 343
Approach:
Write z=x+iy, extract the imaginary part of the given expression, and reduce to a circle equation.
Step 1:Substitute z=x+iy and simplify the imaginary part.
Im(z−iiz−2)+1=x2+(y−1)22x2+2y2−y−1
Step 2:Set numerator to zero.
2x2+2y2−y−1=0⇒x2+y2−2y−21=0
Step 3:Complete the square.
x2+(y−41)2=21+161=169
Final answer: 43
Q64Single correctMatrices and Determinants
For two 3×3 matrices A and B, let A+B=2B′ and 3A+2B=I3, where B' is the transpose of B and I3 is 3×3 identity matrix. Then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 210A+5B=3I3
Approach:
Use the transpose of the first relation together with the second to solve for A and B explicitly.
Step 1:Transpose the first equation.
A+B=2B′⇒A′+B′=2B
Step 2:Solve the linear system entrywise with 3A+2B=I3.
A=51I3,B=51I3
Step 3:Test the options.
10A+5B=2I3+I3=3I3
Final answer: 10A+5B=3I3
Q65Single correctMatrices and Determinants
If x=a, y=b, z=c is a solution of the system of linear equations x+8y+7z=0 9x+2y+3z=0 x+y+z=0 such that the point (a,b,c) lies on the plane x+2y+z=6, then 2a+b+c equals :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 31
Approach:
Solve the homogeneous system for a parametric solution, then fix the parameter using the plane condition.
Step 1:Solve the homogeneous system.
x=−7z,y=−76z
Step 2:Apply the plane condition.
−7z−712z+z=6⇒−76z=6⇒z=−7
Step 3:Evaluate the required expression.
2a+b+c=2(1)+6+(−7)=1
Final answer: 1
Q66Single correctPermutations and Combinations
The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated on a round table if a particular boy B1 and a particular girl G1 never sit adjacent to each other, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 15×6!
Approach:
Use complementary counting: total circular arrangements minus those where the two specified people sit together.
Step 1:Total circular arrangements of 8 people.
(8−1)!=7!
Step 2:Arrangements with B1 and G1 together (treat as one block).
(7−1)!×2!=2⋅6!
Step 3:Subtract.
7!−2⋅6!=6!(7−2)=5×6!
Final answer: 5×6!
Q67Single correctBinomial Theorem
The coefficient of x−5 in the binomial expansion of (x32−x31+1x+1−x−x21x−1)10, where x=0,1, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11
Approach:
Simplify each rational term using factorisation, then apply the binomial general term to locate x−5.
Step 1:Simplify the first term with a=x1/3.
x2/3−x1/3+1x+1=x1/3+1
Step 2:Simplify the second term.
x−x1/2x−1=xx+1=1+x−1/2
Step 3:Combine to get the base.
(x1/3−x−1/2)10
Step 4:Require exponent −5 in the general term.
310−r−2r=−5⇒r=10
Step 5:Compute the coefficient.
(1010)(−1)10=1
Final answer: 1
Q68Single correctSequences and Series
If three positive numbers a, b and c are in A.P. such that abc=8, then the minimum possible value of b is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12
Approach:
Use the AP condition and the AM-GM inequality to bound b in terms of the product.
Step 1:Apply AM-GM to a and c.
b=2a+c≥ac⇒b2≥ac
Step 2:Use the product condition ac=8/b.
b8≤b2⇒b3≥8
Step 3:Identify minimum.
b=2 at a=c=2
Final answer: 2
Q69Single correctSequences and Series
Let Sn=131+13+231+2+13+23+331+2+3+…+13+23+…+n31+2+…+n. If 100Sn=n, then n is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1199
Approach:
Simplify the general term using standard sum formulas, telescope, then solve the given relation for n.
Step 1:Simplify the general term.
(k(k+1)/2)2k(k+1)/2=k(k+1)2
Step 2:Sum by telescoping.
Sn=2∑k=1n(k1−k+11)=n+12n
Step 3:Apply the condition.
100⋅n+12n=n⇒n+1200=1⇒n=199
Final answer: 199
Q70Single correctLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
The value of k for which the function f(x)=⎩⎨⎧(54)tan5xtan4x,k+52,0<x<2πx=2π is continuous at x=2π, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 353
Approach:
Continuity requires the limit of the first piece as x→π/2 to equal the value at x=π/2.
Step 1:Evaluate the exponent limit.
limx→π/2tan5xtan4x=∞0=0
Step 2:Compute the limit of the first piece.
(54)0=1
Step 3:Match with the value at π/2.
k+52=1⇒k=53
Final answer: 53
Q71Single correctDifferential Equations
If 2x=y51+y−51 and (x2−1)dx2d2y+λxdxdy+ky=0, then λ+k is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2−24
Approach:
Express y explicitly, differentiate twice, and identify the coefficients λ and k of the resulting differential equation.
Step 1:Solve for y.
y1/5=x+x2−1⇒y=(x+x2−1)5
Step 2:Form the differential equation by differentiating.
(x2−1)dx2d2y+xdxdy−25y=0
Step 3:Add the coefficients.
λ+k=1+(−25)=−24
Final answer: −24
Q72Single correctApplications of Derivatives
The function f defined by f(x)=x3−3x2+5x+7, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1increasing in R.
Approach:
Examine the sign of the first derivative over all real numbers.
Step 1:Differentiate.
f′(x)=3x2−6x+5
Step 2:Check the discriminant.
Δ=36−60=−24<0
Step 3:Determine the sign.
f′(x)>0 for all x∈R
Final answer: increasing in R.
Q73Single correctDifferentiation
Let f be a polynomial function such that f(3x)=f′(x)⋅f′′(x), for all x∈R. Then :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2f′′(2)−f′(2)=0
Approach:
Compare degrees to fix the polynomial degree, determine coefficients, then test the options.
Step 1:Match degrees.
n=(n−1)+(n−2)⇒n=3
Step 2:Solve for coefficients.
f(x)=23x3
Step 3:Evaluate derivatives at x=2.
f′(x)=29x2,f′′(x)=9x⇒f′(2)=18,f′′(2)=18
Final answer: f′′(2)−f′(2)=0
Q74Single correctIntegral Calculus
If f(3x+43x−4)=x+2,x=−34, and ∫f(x)dx=Alog∣1−x∣+Bx+C, then the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to : (where C is a constant of integration)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2(−38,32)
Approach:
Invert the argument to find f explicitly, integrate, and compare with the given form.
Step 1:Solve the argument for x.
u=3x+43x−4⇒x=3(1−u)4(1+u)
Step 2:Write f explicitly.
f(x)=3(x−1)2(x−5)
Step 3:Integrate.
∫f(x)dx=32x−38log∣x−1∣+C
Final answer: (−38,32)
Q75Single correctIntegral Calculus
If ∫12(x2−2x+4)23dx=k+5k, then k is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11
Approach:
Complete the square, evaluate the definite integral, then equate to the given expression and solve for k.
Step 1:Complete the square.
x2−2x+4=(x−1)2+3
Step 2:Evaluate the integral.
∫12((x−1)2+3)3/2dx=61
Step 3:Solve for k.
k+5k=61⇒6k=k+5⇒k=1
Final answer: 1
Q76Single correctLimit, Continuity and Differentiability
If limn→∞(n+1)a−1[(na+1)+(na+2)+.....+(na+n)]1a+2a+........+na=601 for some positive real number a, then a is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 17
Approach:
Replace the numerator power sum by its leading asymptotic term and the bracket sum by its leading term, then equate the resulting limit to 1/60.
Step 1:Numerator leading behaviour.
1a+2a+⋯+na∼a+1na+1
Step 2:Evaluate the bracket sum and its leading term.
(na+1)+⋯+(na+n)=an2+2n(n+1)∼(a+21)n2
Step 3:Denominator leading behaviour with (n+1)a−1 ~ na−1.
(n+1)a−1(a+21)n2∼(a+21)na+1
Step 4:Form the limit and set equal to 1/60.
a+1/21/(a+1)=(a+1)(2a+1)2=601
Step 5:Solve the equation.
2a2+3a−119=0⇒a=7
Final answer: 7
Q77Single correctDifferential Equations
A tangent to the curve, y=f(x) at P(x, y) meets x-axis at A and y-axis at B. If AP : BP = 1 : 3 and f(1)=1, then the curve also passes through the point :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3(2,81)
Approach:
Express the x- and y-intercepts of the tangent, apply the section-formula ratio AP:BP = 1:3 to obtain a differential equation, solve it with the initial condition, then test the options.
Step 1:Intercepts of the tangent at P(x,y).
A=(x−y′y,0),B=(0,y−xy′)
Step 2:AP:BP = 1:3 places P at t=1/4 from A; match x-coordinate.
x=43(x−y′y)⇒y′y=−3x
Step 3:Separate variables and integrate.
ydy=−3xdx⇒x3y=C
Step 4:Apply f(1)=1.
13⋅1=C⇒C=1,x3y=1
Step 5:Test options.
(2,81):23⋅81=1
Final answer: (2,81)
Q78Single correctCoordinate Geometry
A square, of each side 2, lies above the x-axis and has one vertex at the origin. If one of the sides passing through the origin makes an angle 30∘ with the positive direction of the x-axis, then the sum of the x-coordinates of the vertices of the square is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 223−2
Approach:
Place one vertex at the origin, use the 30 degree direction for one side and the perpendicular 120 degree direction for the adjacent side to find all four vertices, then add their x-coordinates.
A line drawn through the point P(4, 7) cuts the circle x2+y2=9 at the points A and B. Then PA . PB is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 256
Approach:
Use the power of a point with respect to the circle, which equals PA.PB for any secant through the point.
Step 1:Apply the power formula for P(4,7) and the circle of radius 3.
PA⋅PB=42+72−9
Step 2:Compute.
16+49−9=56
Final answer: 56
Q80Single correctCoordinate Geometry
The eccentricity of an ellipse having centre at the origin, axes along the co-ordinate axes and passing through the points (4,−1) and (−2,2) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 323
Approach:
Take the standard ellipse with unknown 1/a2 and 1/b2, substitute both points to form linear equations, solve, then compute eccentricity.
Step 1:Let u=1/a2, v=1/b2 and substitute the two points.
16u+v=1,4u+4v=1
Step 2:Solve the system.
u=201,v=51⇒a2=20,b2=5
Step 3:Compute eccentricity (a2>b2).
e2=1−205=43⇒e=23
Final answer: 23
Q81Single correctCoordinate Geometry
If y=mx+c is the normal at a point on the parabola y2=8x whose focal distance is 8, then ∣c∣ is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3103
Approach:
Use the focal distance to locate the point on the parabola, find the parameter t, then write the normal in parametric form and read off c.
Step 1:Identify a and locate the point.
4a=8⇒a=2;x+2=8⇒x=6
Step 2:Find parameter t from x=at2.
2t2=6⇒t2=3⇒t=±3
Step 3:Normal intercept c (with a=2).
c=2at+at3=4t+2t3
Step 4:Evaluate at t=sqrt3.
c=43+2(33)=103
Final answer: 103
Q82Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
If a variable plane, at a distance of 3 units from the origin, intersects the coordinate axes at A, B and C, then the locus of the centroid of △ABC is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1x21+y21+z21=1
Approach:
Write the intercept form of the plane, impose the distance-from-origin condition, express the centroid coordinates in terms of the intercepts, and eliminate the intercepts.
Step 1:Distance condition gives a relation among intercepts.
p21+q21+r21=91
Step 2:Centroid (x,y,z) implies p=3x, q=3y, r=3z.
9x21+9y21+9z21=91
Step 3:Multiply by 9.
x21+y21+z21=1
Final answer: x21+y21+z21=1
Q83Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
If the line, 1x−3=−1y+2=−2z+λ lies in the plane, 2x−4y+3z=2, then the shortest distance between this line and the line 12x−1=9y=4z is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 30
Approach:
Determine lambda from the condition that the first line lies in the given plane, then compute the shortest distance between the two lines using the scalar triple product.
Step 1:The point (3,-2,-lambda) lies in the plane.
2(3)−4(−2)+3(−λ)=2⇒14−3λ=2⇒λ=4
Step 2:Direction vectors and a connecting vector.
d1=(1,−1,−2),d2=(12,9,4),a2−a1=(−2,2,4)
Step 3:Cross product of directions.
d1×d2=(14,−28,21)
Step 4:Scalar triple product of the connecting vector with the cross product.
(2,−2,−4)⋅(14,−28,21)=28+56−84=0
Step 5:Shortest distance.
d=7290=0
Final answer: 0
Q84Single correctVector Algebra
If the vector b=3j^+4k^ is written as the sum of a vector b1, parallel to a=i^+j^ and a vector b2, perpendicular to a, then b1×b2 is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 26i^−6j^+29k^
Approach:
Project b onto a to get b1, subtract to get b2, then take the cross product.
Step 1:Component parallel to a.
b⋅a=3,∣a∣2=2⇒b1=23i^+23j^
Step 2:Perpendicular component.
b2=b−b1=−23i^+23j^+4k^
Step 3:Cross product.
b1×b2=6i^−6j^+29k^
Final answer: 6i^−6j^+29k^
Q85Single correctProbability
From a group of 10 men and 5 women, four member committees are to be formed each of which must contain at least one woman. Then the probability for these committees to have more women than men, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3111
Approach:
Count committees containing at least one woman as the sample space, count those with more women than men as the favourable event, and divide.
Step 1:Total committees with at least one woman.
(415)−(410)=1365−210=1155
Step 2:Favourable: more women than men means 3W1M or 4W.
(35)(110)+(45)=100+5=105
Step 3:Probability.
1155105=111
Final answer: 111
Q86Single correctProbability
Let E and F be two independent events. The probability that both E and F happen is 121 and the probability that neither E nor F happens is 21, then a value of P(F)P(E) is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 134
Approach:
Use independence to set up equations for the product and for the complement product, solve for P(E) and P(F) as roots of a quadratic, then form the ratio.
Step 1:Let p=P(E), q=P(F).
pq=121,(1−p)(1−q)=21
Step 2:Expand the second equation.
1−(p+q)+pq=21⇒p+q=127
Step 3:p and q are roots of the quadratic.
12t2−7t+1=0⇒t=31,41
Step 4:Take the ratio.
1/41/3=34
Final answer: 34
Q87Single correctStatistics
The sum of 100 observations and the sum of their squares are 400 and 2475, respectively. Later on, three observations, 3, 4 and 5, were found to be incorrect. If the incorrect observations are omitted, then the variance of the remaining observations is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 49.00
Approach:
Remove the three omitted observations from the sum and sum of squares, then apply the variance formula to the remaining 97 observations.
Step 1:Corrected sum after removing 3,4,5.
∑x=400−(3+4+5)=388
Step 2:Corrected sum of squares.
∑x2=2475−(9+16+25)=2425
Step 3:Mean of remaining 97 observations.
xˉ=97388=4
Step 4:Variance.
σ2=972425−42=25−16=9
Final answer: 9.00
Q88Single correctInverse Trigonometric Functions
A value of x satisfying the equation sin[cot−1(1+x)]=cos[tan−1x], is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1−21
Approach:
Convert each inverse-trig expression to an algebraic form and equate.
Step 1:Rewrite both sides.
1+(1+x)21=1+x21
Step 2:Square and simplify.
1+(1+x)2=1+x2⇒1+2x=0
Step 3:Solve.
x=−21
Final answer: −21
Q89Single correctTrigonometry
The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5 and the angle between them is 60∘. If the area of the quadrilateral is 43, then the perimeter of the quadrilateral is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 312
Approach:
Use the cyclic property (opposite angles supplementary) to relate the two diagonal-triangles via the common diagonal and the total area, then solve for the remaining two sides.
Step 1:Diagonal from the 60-degree triangle (sides 2,5).
d2=4+25−2(2)(5)cos60∘=19
Step 2:Opposite angle is 120 degrees; let other sides be c, e.
d2=c2+e2−2cecos120∘=c2+e2+ce=19
Step 3:Total area equation.
43(10+ce)=43⇒ce=6
Step 4:Find c+e.
c2+e2=13,(c+e)2=13+12=25⇒c+e=5
Step 5:Perimeter.
2+5+(c+e)=2+5+5=12
Final answer: 12
Q90Single correctMathematical Reasoning
Contrapositive of the statement 'If two numbers are not equal, then their squares are not equal', is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are equal.
Approach:
Identify the hypothesis p and conclusion q, then form the contrapositive as (not q) implies (not p).
Step 1:Identify p and q.
p: two numbers not equal; q: their squares not equal
Step 2:Form the contrapositive (not q implies not p).
∼q: squares equal; ∼p: numbers equal
Final answer: If the squares of two numbers are equal, then the numbers are equal.
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2017 April 09 paper?
The JEE Main 2017 April 09 paper has 89 questions — Physics (29), Chemistry (30) and Mathematics (30). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
What is the marking scheme for JEE Main?
JEE Main awards +4 marks for each correct answer and −1 for a wrong answer, with 0 for questions left unattempted. The paper covers Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Are the answer key and step-by-step solutions provided for the 2017 April 09 paper?
Yes — every question shows the correct answer (answer key) and a detailed step-by-step solution, free to read online.
Can I take the JEE Main 2017 April 09 paper as a timed mock test?
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