JEE Main 2024 April 05, Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions
All 88 questions from the JEE Main 2024 (April 05, Shift 2) shift — Physics (30), Chemistry (28) and Mathematics (30) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
A particle moves in x−y plane under the influence of a force F such that its linear momentum is p(t)=i^cos(kt)−j^sin(kt). If k is constant, the angle between F and p will be :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32π
Approach:
The force equals the time derivative of momentum. The angle between force and momentum follows from their dot product.
Step 1:Differentiate the momentum to find the force.
F=dtdp=−i^ksin(kt)−j^kcos(kt)
Step 2:Form the dot product of force and momentum.
F⋅p=−ksin(kt)cos(kt)+ksin(kt)cos(kt)
Step 3:A zero dot product corresponds to perpendicular vectors.
cosθ=0⇒θ=2π
Final answer: 2π
Q2Single correctUnits and Measurements
What is the dimensional formula of ab−1 in the equation (P+V2a)(V−b)=RT, where letters have their usual meaning.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3[ML2T−2]
Approach:
The terms added in an equation share dimensions. The dimensions of a and b follow from matching a/V2 with pressure and b with volume.
Step 1:Match b with volume.
[b]=[V]=M0L3T0
Step 2:Match a/V2 with pressure to find the dimensions of a.
[a]=[P][V2]=(M L−1T−2)(L6)=M L5T−2
Step 3:Divide the dimensions of a by those of b.
[ab−1]=L3M L5T−2=M L2T−2
Final answer: [ML2T−2]
Q3Single correctMotion in a Plane
A man carrying a monkey on his shoulder does cycling smoothly on a circular track of radius 9 m and completes 120 resolutions in 3 minutes. The magnitude of centripetal acceleration of monkey is ( in m/s2 ) :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 416π2 ms−2
Approach:
The angular speed follows from the number of revolutions per unit time, and the centripetal acceleration is the product of radius and the square of angular speed.
Step 1:Convert revolutions per minute to frequency in per second.
f=3×60120=180120=32s−1
Step 2:Compute the angular speed.
ω=2πf=2π×32=34πrad/s
Step 3:Apply the centripetal acceleration relation.
ac=ω2r=(34π)2×9=916π2×9
Final answer: 16π2 ms−2
Q4Single correctLaws of Motion
A heavy box of mass 50 kg is moving on a horizontal surface. If co-efficient of kinetic friction between the box and horizontal surface is 0.3 then force of kinetic friction is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2147 N
Approach:
On a horizontal surface the normal force equals the weight, and kinetic friction is the product of the kinetic friction coefficient and the normal force.
Step 1:Compute the normal force on the horizontal surface.
N=mg=50×9.8=490N
Step 2:Apply the kinetic friction relation.
fk=μkN=0.3×490
Final answer: 147 N
Q5Single correctWork, Energy and Power
A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a constant power source. Its displacement in time t is proportional to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2t3/2
Approach:
Constant power gives velocity as a function of time through the work-energy theorem, and integrating velocity yields the displacement dependence.
Step 1:Constant power means kinetic energy grows linearly with time.
21mv2=Pt⇒v∝t1/2
Step 2:Integrate velocity to obtain displacement.
x=∫vdt∝∫t1/2dt
Step 3:Evaluate the integral.
x∝3/2t3/2⇒x∝t3/2
Final answer: t3/2
Q6Single correctGravitation
A satellite revolving around a planet in stationary orbit has time period 6 hours. The mass of planet is one-fourth the mass of earth. The radius orbit of planet is : ( Given = Radius of geo-stationary orbit for earth is 4.2×104 km )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21.05×104 km
Approach:
Kepler's third law relates the orbital radius to the period and the central mass; scaling from the earth's geostationary orbit gives the required radius.
Step 1:Express the orbital radius from Kepler's law.
r=(4π2GMT2)1/3
Step 2:Form the ratio of planet radius to earth geostationary radius.
Each description is identified with the corresponding elastic quantity by its defining force configuration.
Step 1:A restoring force per unit area defines stress, so (A) pairs with (III).
Step 2:Equal and opposite forces parallel to opposite faces produce shear, so (B) pairs with (IV).
Step 3:Forces perpendicular everywhere and uniform over the surface describe volumetric stress, so (C) pairs with (I) bulk modulus.
Step 4:Equal and opposite forces perpendicular to opposite faces produce longitudinal strain, so (D) pairs with (II) Young's modulus.
Final answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Q8Single correctThermodynamics
During an adiabatic process, if the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature, then the ratio of CVCP for the gas is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 323
Approach:
The adiabatic relation between pressure and temperature fixes the exponent in terms of the heat capacity ratio, which is then solved from the given proportionality.
Step 1:Write the adiabatic relation as a power of temperature.
P∝Tγ−1γ
Step 2:Equate the exponent to the given value 3.
γ−1γ=3
Step 3:Solve for the heat capacity ratio.
γ=3γ−3⇒2γ=3⇒γ=23
Final answer: 23
Q9Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases
If n is the number density and d is the diameter of the molecule, then the average distance covered by a molecule between two successive collisions (i.e. mean free path) is represented by :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32nπd21
Approach:
The mean free path is the inverse of the product of number density and collision cross-section, with a factor accounting for relative molecular motion.
Step 1:The collision cross-section uses the molecular diameter.
σ=πd2
Step 2:Including relative speed introduces a factor of 2 in the collision rate.
collision rate∝2nπd2v
Step 3:The mean free path is the inverse of density times cross-section times the 2 factor.
λ=2nπd21
Final answer: 2nπd21
Q10Single correctElectrostatics
The vehicles carrying inflammable fluids usually have metallic chains touching the ground :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4To conduct excess charge due to air friction to ground and prevent sparking
Approach:
The reasoning rests on charge accumulation from friction and the role of a conducting path to ground.
Step 1:Motion through air builds up static charge on the vehicle.
Qstatic>0
Step 2:A metallic chain provides a conducting path that earths this charge continuously.
Qstaticchainground
Step 3:Draining the charge prevents sparking near inflammable fluids.
⇒no spark
Final answer: To conduct excess charge due to air friction to ground and prevent sparking
Q11Single correctCurrent Electricity
A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω when connected in series with 400Ω measures a voltage of upto 10 V. The value of resistance required to convert the galvanometer into ammeter to read upto 10 A is x×10−2Ω. The value of x is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 320
Approach:
The voltmeter configuration fixes the galvanometer full-scale current; the shunt for the ammeter then follows from current division.
Step 1:Determine the galvanometer full-scale current from the voltmeter data.
Ig=100+40010=50010=0.02A
Step 2:Apply the shunt formula for the ammeter range.
S=I−IgIgRg=10−0.020.02×100
Step 3:Evaluate the shunt resistance.
S=9.982=0.2004Ω≈20×10−2Ω
Final answer: 20
Q12Single correctCurrent Electricity
The ratio of heat dissipated per second through the resistance 5Ω and 10Ω in the circuit given below is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22 : 1
Approach:
The 5 ohm and 10 ohm resistors are in parallel and share the same voltage, so the dissipated powers are inversely proportional to their resistances.
Step 1:The 5 ohm and 10 ohm resistors form a parallel branch sharing one common voltage.
V5=V10=V
Step 2:Form the ratio of dissipated powers at equal voltage.
P10P5=V2/10V2/5=510
Final answer: 2 : 1
Q13Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism
The electrostatic force (F1) and magnetic force (F2) acting on a charge q moving with velocity v can be written :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1F1=qE,F2=q(V×B)
Approach:
The Lorentz force law gives the electric and magnetic contributions on a moving charge in their standard forms.
Step 1:The electrostatic force on a charge is the charge times the electric field.
F1=qE
Step 2:The magnetic force is the charge times the cross product of velocity and magnetic field.
F2=q(V×B)
Final answer: F1=qE,F2=q(V×B)
Q14Single correctAlternating Current
A series LCR circuit is subjected to an ac signal of 200 V, 50 Hz. If the voltage across the inductor (L=10mH) is 31.4 V, then the current in this circuit is _____ .
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 310 A
Approach:
The current equals the inductor voltage divided by the inductive reactance, which is computed from the angular frequency and inductance.
Step 1:Compute the inductive reactance.
XL=2π×50×10×10−3=πΩ≈3.14Ω
Step 2:Divide the inductor voltage by the reactance.
Each electromagnetic wave is matched to its wavelength range by decreasing wavelength across the spectrum.
Step 1:Infra-red has the longest range here, 1 mm to 700 nm, so (A) pairs with (III).
Step 2:Ultraviolet spans 400 nm to 1 nm, so (B) pairs with (II).
Step 3:X-rays span 1 nm to 10−3 nm, so (C) pairs with (IV).
Step 4:Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength, <10−3 nm, so (D) pairs with (I).
Final answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Q16Single correctOptics
Given below are two statements : Statement I : When the white light passed through a prism, the red light bends lesser than yellow and violet. Statement II : The refractive indices are different for different wavelengths in dispersive medium. In the light of the above statements, chose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Approach:
Examine the dependence of refractive index on wavelength and the resulting angular deviation in a prism.
Step 1:In a dispersive medium the refractive index varies with wavelength; shorter wavelengths have larger refractive index.
nviolet>nyellow>nred
Step 2:Deviation through a prism increases with refractive index, so red (largest wavelength, smallest n) deviates least.
δred<δyellow<δviolet
Step 3:Both statements describe the same physics and are correct.
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q17Single correctDual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Which of the following statement is not true about stopping potential (V0) ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2It increases with increase in intensity of the incident light.
Approach:
Apply the photoelectric equation to determine which factors influence the stopping potential.
Step 1:Stopping potential equals the maximum kinetic energy divided by electronic charge.
V0=eKEmax
Step 2:Maximum kinetic energy depends on the incident frequency and the work function, which is set by the emitter material.
eV0=hν−ϕ
Step 3:Intensity changes the number of emitted electrons but not their maximum kinetic energy, so the stopping potential is independent of intensity.
V0=f(intensity)
Final answer: It increases with increase in intensity of the incident light.
Q18Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportional to : (Where r is the radius of orbit of electron)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2r
Approach:
Relate the quantized angular momentum and orbital radius in the Bohr model through the quantum number n.
Step 1:Angular momentum is proportional to the principal quantum number.
L∝n
Step 2:Orbital radius scales with the square of the quantum number.
r∝n2⇒n∝r
Step 3:Substitute the dependence of n on r into the angular momentum.
L∝r
Final answer: r
Q19Single correctElectronic Devices
The output (Y) of logic circuit given below is 0 only when :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3A=0,B=0
Approach:
Trace the inputs through the two first-stage gates and the final OR gate to obtain the Boolean expression for Y.
Step 1:The top gate is an OR of A and B; the bottom gate is an AND of B and the constant 1.
Y1=A+B,Y2=B
Step 2:The final OR gate combines both outputs.
Y=(A+B)+B=A+B
Step 3:An OR output is 0 only when both inputs are 0.
A+B=0⇒A=0,B=0
Final answer: A=0,B=0
Q20Single correctExperimental Skills
A vernier callipers has 20 divisions on the vernier scale, which coincides with 19th division on the main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. One main scale division is equal to _____mm.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22
Approach:
Use the least count relation for a vernier callipers, where N vernier divisions span (N-1) main scale divisions.
Step 1:20 vernier divisions coincide with 19 main scale divisions, so one vernier division equals 19/20 of a main scale division.
1VSD=2019MSD
Step 2:Least count is the difference between one main scale division and one vernier division.
LC=1MSD−1VSD=201MSD
Step 3:Set the least count equal to 0.1 mm and solve for one main scale division.
0.1=20MSD⇒MSD=2mm
Final answer: 2
Q21NumericalKinematics
The maximum height reached by a projectile is 64 m. If the initial velocity is halved, the new maximum height of the projectile is _____ m.
SolutionAnswer: 16
Approach:
Maximum height of a projectile is proportional to the square of the initial velocity for a fixed angle of projection.
Step 1:Maximum height varies as the square of the initial velocity at constant projection angle.
H∝u2
Step 2:Halving the initial velocity reduces the height by a factor of four.
H′=(21)2H=4H
Step 3:Substitute the original height.
H′=464=16m
Final answer: 16
Q22NumericalRotational Motion
A hollow sphere is rolling on a plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio of rotational kinetic energy to its total kinetic energy is 5x. The value of x is _____ .
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
Express rotational and total kinetic energy of a rolling hollow sphere using its moment of inertia and the rolling condition.
Step 1:Rotational kinetic energy uses the hollow sphere moment of inertia with the rolling condition.
KErot=21Iω2=21⋅32mR2⋅R2v2=31mv2
Step 2:Total kinetic energy is the sum of translational and rotational parts.
KEtotal=21mv2+31mv2=65mv2
Step 3:Form the requested ratio.
KEtotalKErot=6531=52
Step 4:Compare with x/5.
5x=52⇒x=2
Final answer: 2
Q23NumericalSolids and Liquids
A hydraulic press containing water has two arms with diameters as mentioned in the figure. A force of 10 N is applied on the surface of water in the thinner arm. The force required to be applied on the surface of water in the thicker arm to maintain equilibrium of water is _____N.
SolutionAnswer: 1000
Approach:
Equal pressure transmission through the connected fluid (Pascal's law) relates the two forces through the cross-sectional areas.
Step 1:Pressure is equal in both arms, so force ratio equals area ratio, which scales with the square of the diameter.
F1F2=A1A2=(d1d2)2
Step 2:The thicker arm has diameter 14 cm and the thinner arm 1.4 cm, a ratio of 10.
d1d2=1.414=10
Step 3:Compute the required force on the thicker arm.
F2=10×(10)2=1000N
Final answer: 1000
Q24NumericalOscillations and Waves
A sonometer wire of resonating length 90 cm has a fundamental frequency of 400 Hz when kept under some tension. The resonating length of the wire with fundamental frequency of 600 Hz under same tension _____cm.
SolutionAnswer: 60
Approach:
At fixed tension and linear density, the fundamental frequency of a stretched wire is inversely proportional to its length.
Step 1:With tension and mass per unit length unchanged, frequency varies inversely with length.
f∝L1⇒f1L1=f2L2
Step 2:Substitute the known values.
400×90=600×L2
Step 3:Solve for the new length.
L2=60036000=60cm
Final answer: 60
Q25NumericalElectrostatics
The electric field at point p due to an electric dipole is E. The electric field at point R on equatorial line will be xE. The value of x :
SolutionAnswer: 16
Approach:
Compare the axial field at point p (distance r) with the equatorial field at point R (distance 2r), using the dipole field expressions.
Step 1:Point p lies on the axis at distance r, giving the axial field E.
E=r32kp
Step 2:Point R lies on the equatorial line at distance 2r from the centre.
ER=(2r)3kp=8r3kp
Step 3:Form the ratio of the two fields.
EER=2kp/r3kp/8r3=161
Step 4:Identify x from ER = E/x.
x=16
Final answer: 16
Q26NumericalCurrent Electricity
A wire of resistance 20Ω is divided into 10 equal parts, resulting pairs. A combination of two parts are connected in parallel and so on. Now resulting pairs of parallel combination are connected in series. The equivalent resistance of final combination is _____ Ω.
SolutionAnswer: 5
Approach:
Find each part's resistance, combine pairs in parallel, then add the five parallel combinations in series.
Step 1:Dividing 20 ohm into 10 equal parts gives each part a resistance of 2 ohm.
r=1020=2Ω
Step 2:Two such parts in parallel give 1 ohm; there are five such parallel pairs.
Rp=22=1Ω
Step 3:Connecting the five 1 ohm combinations in series.
Req=5×1=5Ω
Final answer: 5
Q27NumericalMagnetism
A solenoid of length 0.5 m has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of ' m ' number of turns. It carries a current of 5 A. If the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is 6.28×10−3 T then the value of m is _____.
SolutionAnswer: 500
Approach:
Use the axial magnetic field of a long solenoid to solve for the total number of turns.
Step 1:Express the field in terms of total turns N over length L.
B=μ0LNI
Step 2:Rearrange for N and substitute the values.
N=μ0IBL=(4π×10−7)(5)(6.28×10−3)(0.5)
Step 3:Evaluate the expression.
N=500
Final answer: 500
Q28NumericalEMI and AC
The current in an inductor is given by I=(3t+8) where t is in second. The magnitude of induced emf produced in the inductor is 12mV. The self-inductance of the inductor _____ mH.
SolutionAnswer: 4
Approach:
Relate the induced emf to the rate of change of current through the self-inductance.
Step 1:Differentiate the current to find its rate of change.
dtdI=dtd(3t+8)=3A/s
Step 2:Apply the emf relation with the given emf.
12×10−3=L×3
Step 3:Solve for the self-inductance.
L=312×10−3=4×10−3H=4mH
Final answer: 4
Q29NumericalOptics
In a single slit experiment, a parallel beam of green light of wavelength 550 nm passes through a slit of width 0.20 mm. The transmitted light is collected on a screen 100 cm away. The distance of first order minima from the central maximum will be x×10−5 m. The value of x is :
SolutionAnswer: 275
Approach:
Apply the single slit minima condition to find the position of the first order minimum on the screen.
Step 1:The first order minimum of single slit diffraction is located using n = 1.
y=aλD
Step 2:Substitute wavelength 550 nm, screen distance 1 m and slit width 0.20 mm.
y=0.20×10−3(550×10−9)(1)
Step 3:Evaluate the position.
y=2.75×10−3m=275×10−5m
Final answer: 275
Q30NumericalAtoms and Nuclei
The shortest wavelength of the spectral lines in the Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum is 915 Å. The longest wavelength of spectral lines in the Balmer series will be _____ Å.
SolutionAnswer: 6588
Approach:
Use the Rydberg formula; the Lyman series limit fixes the Rydberg constant, which then gives the longest Balmer wavelength (the H-alpha transition).
Step 1:The shortest Lyman wavelength corresponds to the transition from infinity to n = 1.
λL1=R(121−0)=R
Step 2:The longest Balmer wavelength corresponds to the transition from n = 3 to n = 2.
λB1=R(221−321)=R⋅365
Step 3:Combine to express the Balmer wavelength in terms of the Lyman limit.
λB=536λL=536×915
Step 4:Evaluate the wavelength.
λB=6588A˚
Final answer: 6588
Chemistry28 questions
Q31Single correctSome Basic Concepts of Chemistry
The number of moles of methane required to produce 11 g CO2( g) after complete combustion is : (Given molar mass of methane in gmol−1 : 16)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 40.25
Approach:
Combustion of methane gives one mole of CO2 per mole of CH4; convert the CO2 mass to moles to find the methane moles.
Step 1:Determine moles of CO2 produced using its molar mass of 44 g mol−1.
nCO2=4411
Step 2:From the balanced equation, one mole of CH4 yields one mole of CO2, so the mole ratio is 1:1.
nCH4=nCO2
Step 3:Therefore the methane required equals the moles of CO2.
nCH4=0.25
Final answer: 0.25
Q32Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The metallic radius of Na is 1.86 A∘ and the ionic radius of Na+ is lesser than 1.86 A∘. Statement II : Ions are always smaller in size than the corresponding elements. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Approach:
Evaluate each statement against periodic trends in metallic and ionic radii.
Step 1:A sodium cation loses its outermost electron and gains nuclear pull on remaining electrons, so Na+ is smaller than the Na atom radius of 1.86 A∘. Statement I is correct.
rNa+<1.86A∘
Step 2:Anions are larger than their parent atoms because added electrons increase electron-electron repulsion, so the claim that all ions are smaller than the corresponding elements fails. Statement II is false.
ranion>ratom
Step 3:Therefore Statement I is correct while Statement II is false.
I: true,II: false
Final answer: Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
Q33Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Assign the shape of each interhalogen species from its hybridisation and lone-pair count, then match.
Step 1:ICl is a diatomic interhalogen with two atoms, giving a linear shape, matching (IV).
Step 2:ICl3 has three bond pairs and two lone pairs (AX3E2), producing a T-shape, matching (I).
Step 3:ClF5 has five bond pairs and one lone pair (AX5E), giving a square pyramidal (pyramidal) shape, matching (II).
Step 4:IF7 has seven bond pairs (AX7), giving a pentagonal bipyramidal shape, matching (III).
Final answer: (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Q34Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : NH3 and NF3 molecule have pyramidal shape with a lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom. The resultant dipole moment of NH3 is greater than that of NF3. Reason (R) : In NH3, the orbital dipole due to lone pair is in the same direction as the resultant dipole moment of the N − H bonds. F is the most electronegative element. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Approach:
Compare the vector addition of bond and lone-pair dipoles in NH3 versus NF3.
Step 1:In NH3 the N − H bond dipoles point toward nitrogen, the same direction as the lone-pair dipole, so the contributions add and give a large net moment.
μlp∥∑μN-H
Step 2:In NF3 the N − F bond dipoles point toward the more electronegative fluorine, opposing the lone-pair dipole, so they partly cancel and give a small net moment.
μlp↑↓∑μN-F
Step 3:Therefore μNH3>μNF3, making (A) true, and the directional argument in (R) correctly explains it.
μNH3>μNF3
Final answer: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Q36Single correctThe p-Block Elements
The correct statements from the following are : (A) The decreasing order of atomic radii of group 13 elements is Tl > In > Ga > Al > B. (B) Down the group 13 electronegativity decreases from top to bottom. (C) Al dissolves in dil. HCl and liberates H2 but conc. HNO3 renders Al passive by forming a protective oxide layer on the surface. (D) All elements of group 13 exhibits highly stable +1 oxidation state. (E) Hybridisation of Al in [Al(H2O)6]3+ ion is sp3d2. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3(C) and (E) only
Approach:
Test each statement against group 13 periodic trends and bonding.
Step 1:Group 13 atomic radii do not increase smoothly; Ga is smaller than Al due to poor d-electron shielding, so the strict order Tl > In > Ga > Al > B is not correct. (A) is incorrect.
rGa<rAl
Step 2:Electronegativity in group 13 does not decrease monotonically down the group; it fluctuates, so (B) is incorrect.
χnon-monotonic
Step 3:Aluminium dissolves in dilute HCl to liberate H2, while concentrated HNO3 passivates it via an oxide layer, so (C) is correct.
2Al+6HCl→2AlCl3+3H2
Step 4:Only heavier members (Tl) show a stable +1 state, not all group 13 elements, so (D) is incorrect; the octahedral hexaaqua aluminium ion uses sp3d2 hybridisation, so (E) is correct.
[Al(H2O)6]3+:sp3d2
Final answer: (C) and (E) only
Q37Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques
The correct nomenclature for the following compound is :
Identify the principal characteristic group, number the chain to give it the lowest locant, and name the substituents.
Step 1:The carboxylic acid group outranks the aldehyde and hydroxyl groups, so it becomes the principal group and carbon C1, giving the parent name an -oic acid suffix.
−COOH=C1
Step 2:The longest chain bearing the carboxylic acid has seven carbons; the aldehyde at C2 is named as a formyl substituent and the hydroxyl at C4 as hydroxy.
2-formyl-4-hydroxy
Step 3:The carbon-carbon double bond lies between C6 and C7, giving the hept-6-ene locant.
Δ6,7
Step 4:Combining the parts gives 2-formyl-4-hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid.
2-formyl-4-hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid
Final answer: 2-formyl-4-hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid
Q38Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques
Classify the isomerism relating each pair of compounds.
Step 1:n-propanol and isopropanol differ only in the position of the hydroxyl group on the same carbon skeleton, which is position isomerism.
Step 2:Methoxypropane and ethoxyethane are ethers with different alkyl groups about the oxygen, which is metamerism.
Step 3:Propanone (ketone) and propanal (aldehyde) share the formula C3H6O but contain different functional groups, which is functional isomerism.
Step 4:Neopentane and isopentane differ in carbon-chain branching, which is chain isomerism.
Final answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
Q39Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Identify A and B in the given chemical reaction sequence :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3
Approach:
Trace the intramolecular Friedel-Crafts acylation, Clemmensen reduction, and acid-catalysed cyclisation that build the fused bicyclic ketone product.
Step 1:Benzene reacts with succinic anhydride and AlCl3 by Friedel-Crafts acylation to give a keto-acid, 4-oxo-4-phenylbutanoic acid, which is intermediate A.
C6H6+(CH2CO)2OAlCl3PhCO-CH2CH2COOH
Step 2:Clemmensen reduction with Zn-Hg and HCl reduces the aryl ketone carbonyl to a methylene, giving 4-phenylbutanoic acid, which is intermediate B.
PhCO-CH2CH2COOHZn-Hg/HClPhCH2CH2CH2COOH
Step 3:Acid-catalysed intramolecular Friedel-Crafts acylation of B then forms the fused bicyclic ketone 1-tetralone (3,4-dihydronaphthalen-1(2H)-one).
PhCH2CH2CH2COOHH+1-tetralone
Step 4:Therefore A is the phenyl keto-acid and B is 4-phenylbutanoic acid, matching the structures in option 3.
A=PhCOCH2CH2COOH,B=Ph(CH2)3COOH
Q40Single correctHydrocarbons
Consider the given chemical reaction : Product " A " is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3adipic acid
Approach:
Apply hot acidic potassium permanganate oxidative cleavage to the ring double bond of cyclohexene.
Step 1:Hot acidified KMnO4 cleaves the carbon-carbon double bond of cyclohexene, opening the ring at the alkene.
cyclohexeneKMnO4/H2SO4,Δ
Step 2:Each former alkene carbon is oxidised to a carboxylic acid, and since both carbons bear hydrogens they become −COOH groups joined by the remaining four-carbon chain.
HOOC-(CH2)4-COOH
Step 3:The six-carbon dicarboxylic acid HOOC−(CH_2)4−COOH is adipic acid.
HOOC(CH2)4COOH=adipic acid
Final answer: adipic acid
Q41Single correctElectrochemistry
The quantity of silver deposited when one coulomb charge is passed through AgNO3 solution :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21 electrochemical equivalent of silver
Approach:
Use Faraday's first law to interpret the mass deposited by one coulomb of charge.
Step 1:Faraday's first law states the mass deposited equals the electrochemical equivalent Z times the charge Q passed.
m=ZQ
Step 2:The electrochemical equivalent is defined as the mass deposited by one coulomb of charge, so setting Q=1 C gives m=Z.
Q=1C⇒m=Z
Step 3:Therefore one coulomb deposits exactly one electrochemical equivalent of silver.
m=Z=1ECE
Final answer: 1 electrochemical equivalent of silver
Q42Single correctElectrochemistry
For the electro chemical cell If E(M2+/M)0=0.46 V and E(x/X2−)0=0.34 V. Which of the following is correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4M2++X2−→ M + X is a spontaneous reaction
Approach:
Use the standard electrode potentials to find the cell EMF and the direction of the spontaneous reaction.
Step 1:The species with the higher reduction potential acts as the cathode; here E(M2+/M)0=0.46 V exceeds E(x/X2−)0=0.34 V, so the M2+/M couple is reduced.
0.46>0.34
Step 2:Computing the EMF with M2+/M as cathode and the X couple as anode gives a positive value.
Ecell0=0.46−0.34=0.12V
Step 3:A positive EMF makes the reduction of M2+ together with oxidation at the X electrode spontaneous, so the reaction M2++X2−→ M + X proceeds spontaneously.
M2++X2−→M+X
Final answer: M2++X2−→ M + X is a spontaneous reaction
Q43Single correctThe d- and f-Block Elements
The number of ions from the following that have the ability to liberate hydrogen from a dilute acid is _____. Ti2+, Cr2+ and V2+
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 23
Approach:
An ion liberates hydrogen from dilute acid when its M3+/M2+ reduction potential is negative, making the M2+ ion a strong reductant.
Step 1:Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ each have negative M3+/M2+ standard potentials, so they are strong enough reducing agents to reduce H+ to H2.
ETi3+/Ti2+0,EV3+/V2+0,ECr3+/Cr2+0<0
Step 2:Each of these ions is oxidised by H+ from dilute acid, releasing hydrogen gas.
2M2++2H+→2M3++H2
Step 3:Therefore all three ions liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
count=3
Final answer: 3
Q44Single correctPrinciples Related to Practical Chemistry
While preparing crystals of Mohr's salt, dil H2SO4 is added to a mixture of ferrous sulphate and ammonium sulphate, before dissolving this mixture in water, dil H2SO4 is added here to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate
Approach:
Identify the salt prone to hydrolysis among the components and the role of the added acid.
Step 1:Ferrous sulphate is the salt of a weak base and a strong acid, so its ferrous ion tends to hydrolyse in water, forming a basic precipitate.
Fe2++2H2O⇌Fe(OH)2+2H+
Step 2:Adding dilute H2SO4 increases H+ concentration, shifting the hydrolysis equilibrium backward and keeping the ferrous ions in solution.
[H+]↑⇒equilibrium shifts left
Step 3:Therefore the acid is added to prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate.
prevent Fe2+hydrolysis
Final answer: prevent the hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate
Q46Single correctCoordination Compounds
The metal atom present in the complex MABXL (where A, B, X and L are unidentate ligands and M is metal) involves sp3 hybridization. The number of geometrical isomers exhibited by the complex is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 20
Approach:
An sp3 hybridized metal centre adopts a tetrahedral geometry. Geometrical isomerism is assessed for a tetrahedral MABXL complex.
Step 1:sp3 hybridization fixes the geometry of M as tetrahedral with four ligand positions.
MABXL, tetrahedral
Step 2:In a tetrahedral arrangement every ligand position is adjacent to all others, so no two distinct cis/trans relationships exist among the four different ligands.
all four corners equivalent in adjacency
Step 3:Tetrahedral complexes do not show geometrical isomerism; therefore the count is zero.
0
Final answer: 0
Q47Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes
Identify the major product in the following reaction.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3
Approach:
The substrate is 1-bromo-1-methylcyclopentane, a tertiary halide, treated with alcoholic KOH (OH/C2H5OH), which promotes E2 elimination. Saytzeff's rule selects the more substituted alkene.
Step 1:Alcoholic KOH supplies a strong base favouring elimination over substitution for a tertiary halide.
E2 pathway
Step 2:Loss of HBr can give either the endocyclic (ring) double bond bearing the methyl group or the exocyclic methylene double bond.
two β-H sets
Step 3:The endocyclic, trisubstituted alkene (1-methylcyclopentene) is more substituted and thermodynamically more stable, hence the Saytzeff major product.
1-methylcyclopent-1-ene
Final answer: 1-methylcyclopent-1-ene (option 3)
Q48Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
CH3CH2-OH (i) Jone’s Reagent (ii) KMnO4 (iii) NaOH, CaO, Δ P Consider the above reaction sequence and identify the major product P.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Methane
Approach:
Ethanol is oxidized to acetic acid, then the sodium salt undergoes decarboxylation (soda-lime, NaOH/CaO, Δ) to give the hydrocarbon with one fewer carbon.
Step 1:Jone's reagent and KMnO4 oxidize ethanol fully to acetic acid.
CH3CH2OH→CH3COOH
Step 2:NaOH converts acetic acid to sodium acetate.
CH3COOH+NaOH→CH3COONa
Step 3:Soda-lime decarboxylation removes CO2 as carbonate, replacing -COONa by -H.
CH3COONaNaOH, CaO, ΔCH4
Final answer: Methane
Q49Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes
Which one of the following reactions is NOT possible?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4
Approach:
Each option is evaluated for feasibility. The conversion of phenol to chlorobenzene by treatment with HCl is examined.
Step 1:Option 1: anisole with HBr cleaves the ether to give phenol and methyl bromide, a feasible reaction.
ArOCH3+HBr→ArOH+CH3Br
Step 2:Option 2: chlorination of anisole with Cl2/AlCl3 gives para-chloroanisole, a feasible electrophilic substitution.
ArOCH3Cl2/AlCl3p-Cl-ArOCH3
Step 3:Option 3: chlorobenzene with NaOH at high temperature and acidification gives phenol (Dow process), feasible.
ArClNaOH, Δ,H+ArOH
Step 4:Option 4: phenol with HCl cannot replace -OH by -Cl because the C(sp2)-O bond has partial double-bond character and is not cleaved by HCl; this reaction is not possible.
ArOH+HCl→ArCl
Final answer: Phenol + HCl to chlorobenzene (option 4)
Q50Single correctBiomolecules
Coagulation of egg, on heating is because of :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Denaturation of protein occurs
Approach:
Heating disrupts the hydrogen bonds and other weak interactions holding the secondary and tertiary structure of egg albumin, causing denaturation.
Step 1:Egg white contains globular protein (albumin) stabilized by hydrogen bonds and disulphide/electrostatic interactions.
native folded albumin
Step 2:Heat breaks these weak interactions, unfolding the secondary and tertiary structure while the primary peptide backbone stays intact.
2∘,3∘ disrupted
Step 3:The unfolded chains aggregate and the protein coagulates, losing biological activity.
coagulation
Final answer: Denaturation of protein occurs
Q51NumericalStructure of Atom
In an atom, total number of electrons having quantum numbers n =4,∣ml∣=1 and ms=−21 is _______
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
Electrons in the n=4 shell with magnetic quantum number magnitude ∣ml∣=1 are counted across all allowed subshells, then restricted to a single spin orientation.
Step 1:For n=4, the allowed subshells are l = 0, 1, 2, 3 (4s, 4p, 4d, 4f).
l=0,1,2,3
Step 2:Orbitals with ∣ml∣=1 exist for l = 1, 2, 3 (not l = 0), giving two orbitals (ml=+1 and −1) in each of these three subshells.
∣ml∣=1⇒ml=±1
Step 3:Each orbital holds one electron with ms=−21, giving 6 such electrons.
6×1=6
Final answer: 6
Q52NumericalChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Number of compounds from the following with zero dipole moment is _______ HF, H2, H2S, CO2, NH3, BF3, CH4, CHCl3, SiF4, H2O, BeF2
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
A molecule has zero net dipole moment when its bond dipoles cancel by symmetry. Each species is classified by geometry.
Step 1:Homonuclear and symmetric nonpolar species: H2 (homonuclear), CO2 (linear symmetric), BF3 (trigonal planar), CH4 (tetrahedral), SiF4 (tetrahedral), BeF2 (linear) all have cancelling dipoles.
μ=0
Step 2:Polar species with net dipole: HF (heteronuclear), H2S (bent), NH3 (pyramidal), CHCl3 (asymmetric tetrahedral), H2O (bent) have non-zero dipole.
μ=0
Step 3:Counting the symmetric, dipole-free molecules gives six.
6
Final answer: 6
Q53NumericalThermodynamics
Combustion of 1 mole of benzene is expressed at C6H6(l)+215O2(g)→6CO2(g)+3H2O(l). The standard enthalpy of combustion of 2 mol of benzene is −x kJ. x= _______ Given: 1. standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of C6H6(l), for the reaction 6C (graphite)+3H2(g)→C6H6(l) is 48.5 kJ mol−1. 2. Standard Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of CO2(g), for the reaction C (graphite)+O2(g)→CO2(g) is −393.5 kJ mol−1. 3. Standard and Enthalpy of formation of 1 mol of H2O(l), for the reaction H2(g)+21O2(g)→H2O(l) is −286 kJ mol−1.
SolutionAnswer: 6535
Approach:
The standard enthalpy of combustion per mole is obtained from formation enthalpies via Hess's law, then scaled to 2 moles of benzene.
Step 1:For 1 mol benzene combustion, products are 6 CO2 and 3 H2O; reactant formation term is benzene (O2 has zero formation enthalpy).
ΔHc=[6(−393.5)+3(−286)]−[48.5]
Step 2:Evaluate the product sum.
6(−393.5)+3(−286)=−2361−858=−3219
Step 3:Subtract the benzene formation enthalpy.
ΔHc=−3219−48.5=−3267.5 kJ mol−1
Step 4:Scale to 2 moles of benzene.
2×(−3267.5)=−6535 kJ
Final answer: 6535
Q54NumericalSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Using the given figure, the ratio of Rf values of sample A and sample C is x×10−2. Value of x is _______
SolutionAnswer: 50
Approach:
The retardation factor Rf is the ratio of the distance moved by the sample to the distance moved by the solvent front (measured from the base line). The required ratio is Rf(A)/Rf(C).
Step 1:From the figure, the base line is at 0.0 cm and the solvent front at 12.5 cm; sample A spot is at 5.0 cm and sample C spot at 10.0 cm.
dA=5.0,dC=10.0,dfront=12.5
Step 2:Compute each Rf relative to the solvent front.
Rf(A)=12.55.0,Rf(C)=12.510.0
Step 3:Take the ratio.
Rf(C)Rf(A)=10.05.0=0.50=50×10−2
Final answer: 50
Q55NumericalSolutions
Considering acetic acid dissociates in water, its dissociation constant is 6.25×10−5. If 5 mL of acetic acid is dissolved in 1 litre water, the solution will freeze at −x×10−2∘C, provided pure water freezes at 0∘C. x= _______ . (Nearest integer) Given : (Kf)water=1.86 K kg mol−1. density of acetic acid is 1.2 g mol−1. _______ molar mass of water =18 g mol−1. Acetic acid dissociates as molar mass of acetic acid =60 gmol−1. density of water =1 g cm−3 CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COO⊖+ H⊕
SolutionAnswer: 19
Approach:
The molality of acetic acid is found from its volume and density, the degree of dissociation from the dissociation constant, the van't Hoff factor from that, and finally the freezing point depression.
Step 1:Mass of acetic acid = volume x density = 5 x 1.2 = 6 g; moles = 6/60 = 0.1 mol. With 1 L (1 kg) water, molality m = 0.1 mol kg−1.
m=16/60=0.1mol kg−1
Step 2:Concentration C taken as 0.1; degree of dissociation from Ka=Cα2.
α=CKa=0.16.25×10−5=6.25×10−4=0.025
Step 3:van't Hoff factor for 1:1 dissociation.
i=1+α=1.025
Step 4:Freezing point depression.
ΔTf=1.025×1.86×0.1=0.19065∘C
Step 5:Express as x×10−2 and round to nearest integer.
0.19065=19.065×10−2⇒x≈19
Final answer: 19
Q56NumericalChemical Kinetics
Consider the following single step reaction in gas phase at constant temperature. 2 A(g)+ B(g)→C(g) The initial rate of the reaction is recorded as r1 when the reaction starts with 1.5 atm pressure of A and 0.7 atm pressure of B. After some time, the rate r2 is recorded when the pressure of C becomes 0.5 atm. The ratio r1 : r2 is _______ ×10−1. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 315
Approach:
For a single-step (elementary) reaction the rate law follows the stoichiometric coefficients: r=k[A]2[B]. Partial pressures are updated by the stoichiometry once 0.5 atm of C has formed.
Step 1:Initial rate uses PA=1.5, PB=0.7.
r1=k(1.5)2(0.7)
Step 2:Forming 0.5 atm C consumes 2(0.5) = 1.0 atm A and 0.5 atm B by stoichiometry.
PA=1.5−1.0=0.5,PB=0.7−0.5=0.2
Step 3:Rate at that instant.
r2=k(0.5)2(0.2)=k(0.25)(0.2)
Step 4:Form the ratio.
r2r1=(0.25)(0.2)(2.25)(0.7)=0.051.575=31.5
Step 5:Express as ×10−1.
31.5=315×10−1
Final answer: 315
Q57NumericalThe d- and f-Block Elements
The fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in the presence of air leads to the formation of products A and B along with the evolution of CO2. The sum of spin-only magnetic moment values of A and B is _______ B.M. (Nearest integer) [Given atomic number : C : 6, Na : 11, O : 8, Fe : 26, Cr : 24]
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
Identify products A and B of chromite fusion with Na2CO3 in air, determine the unpaired electrons in each, and sum their spin-only magnetic moments.
Step 1:Roasting FeCr2O4 with Na2CO3 and air gives sodium chromate (Na2CrO4) and ferric oxide (Fe2O3), releasing CO2.
Step 2:In Na2CrO4 chromium is Cr6+ (d0), so it has zero unpaired electrons and zero moment.
Cr6+:n=0,μ=0
Step 3:In Fe2O3 iron is Fe3+ (d5) with 5 unpaired electrons.
Fe3+:n=5,μ=5×7=35≈5.92
Step 4:Sum the moments and round to the nearest integer.
0+5.92=5.92≈6
Final answer: 6
Q58NumericalAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
In the Claisen-Schmidt reaction to prepare 351 g of dibenzalacetone using 87 g of acetone, the amount of benzaldehyde required is _______ g. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 318
Approach:
Dibenzalacetone forms from one acetone and two benzaldehyde molecules. The mass of benzaldehyde is found from the moles of product (or of acetone) using this 1:2 stoichiometry.
Step 2:Moles of acetone = 87/58 = 1.5 mol, requiring 2 x 1.5 = 3 mol benzaldehyde.
nacetone=5887=1.5,nPhCHO=3
Step 3:Mass of benzaldehyde.
3×106=318g
Final answer: 318
Q59NumericalHydrocarbons
The product (C) in the following sequence of reactions has _______ π bonds.
SolutionAnswer: 4
Approach:
The propyl-substituted benzene is oxidized at the side chain to benzoic acid, acidified, then brominated on the ring. The pi bonds in the final product are counted.
Step 1:Hot alkaline KMnO4 oxidizes the alkyl side chain of n-propylbenzene to a carboxyl group, giving potassium benzoate (A); acidification (H3O+) gives benzoic acid (B).
C6H5CH2CH2CH3→C6H5COOH
Step 2:Br2/FeBr3 carries out electrophilic ring bromination (the -COOH group is meta-directing), giving meta-bromobenzoic acid (C).
C6H5COOHBr2/FeBr3m-Br-C6H4COOH
Step 3:Count pi bonds: the benzene ring contributes 3 pi bonds and the carboxyl C=O contributes 1 pi bond.
3+1=4
Final answer: 4
Q60NumericalAmines
Xg of ethanamine was subjected to reaction with NaNO2/HCl followed by hydrolysis to liberate N2 and HCl. The HCl generated was completely neutralised by 0.2 moles of NaOH. X is _______ g.
SolutionAnswer: 9
Approach:
A primary aliphatic amine reacts with nitrous acid to give an alcohol, liberating N2 and HCl in 1:1 mole ratio with the amine. The HCl neutralised gives the moles of amine, hence its mass.
Step 1:C2H5NH2 with NaNO2/HCl gives a diazonium intermediate that on hydrolysis yields ethanol, N2 and HCl; per mole of amine one mole of HCl is generated.
C2H5NH2→C2H5OH+N2+HCl
Step 2:0.2 mol NaOH neutralises 0.2 mol HCl, so moles of amine = 0.2 mol.
nHCl=nNaOH=0.2=namine
Step 3:Molar mass of ethanamine C2H5NH2 = 45 g mol−1; mass = 0.2 x 45.
X=0.2×45=9g
Final answer: 9
Mathematics30 questions
Q61Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Let S1={z∈C:∣z∣≤5}, S2={z∈C:Im(1−3iz+1−3i)≥0} and S3={z∈C:Re(z)≥0}. Then the area of the region S1∩S2∩S3 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 112125π
Approach:
Reduce each set to a real-plane region with z=x+iy, then identify the bounded sector of the disk and apply the circular-sector area formula.
Step 1:S1 is the disk centred at the origin of radius 5.
x2+y2≤25
Step 2:Rationalise the quotient in S2; its imaginary part is proportional to 3x+y.
43(x+1)+(y−3)=43x+y≥0
Step 3:S3 restricts to the right half-plane.
x≥0
Step 4:Intersecting the two half-plane conditions inside the disk yields the angular sector from −60∘ to 90∘, of central angle 65π.
θ=90∘−(−60∘)=150∘=65π
Step 5:Apply the sector-area formula with r=5.
A=21(25)(65π)=12125π
Final answer: 12125π
Q62Single correctPermutations and Combinations
60 words can be made using all the letters of the word BHBJO, with or without meaning. If these words are written as in a dictionary, then the 50th word is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2OBBJH
Approach:
Order the letters alphabetically and count words block-by-block until the cumulative total reaches 50.
Step 1:Alphabetical order of the multiset {B,B,H,J,O} has first letters B, H, J, O.
B<H<J<O
Step 2:Words starting with B fix one B; the remaining four letters {B,H,J,O} give 4!=24 words. Words starting with H fix one of the unique letters; remaining {B,B,J,O} give 2!4!=12 words. The same count applies to J.
24+12+12=48
Step 3:The remaining words begin with O. Order {B,B,H,J} after O: the 49th word is OBBHJ and the 50th is OBBJH.
49→OBBHJ,50→OBBJH
Final answer: OBBJH
Q63Single correctSequences and Series
For x⩾0, the least value of K, for which 41+x+41−x, 2K, 16x+16−x are three consecutive terms of an A.P., is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 310
Approach:
Use the A.P. middle-term condition, substitute t=4x, and minimise the resulting expression in u=t+t−1.
Step 1:The middle term equals the average of the outer terms.
K=4⋅4x+4⋅4−x+16x+16−x
Step 2:Set t=4x≥1 and u=t+t−1, so t2+t−2=u2−2.
K=4u+(u2−2)
Step 3:For x≥0, t≥1 gives u≥2; the increasing function u2+4u−2 attains its least value at u=2.
Kmin=22+4(2)−2=10
Final answer: 10
Q64Single correctBinomial Theorem
If the constant term in the expansion of (x53+352x)12, x=0, is α×28×53, then 25α is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4693
Approach:
Write the general term, set the power of x to zero to fix r, evaluate the coefficient, and compare with the given form.
Step 1:The exponent of x is −(12−r)+r=2r−12; the constant term requires it to vanish.
2r−12=0⇒r=6
Step 2:Substitute r=6 into the general term.
T7=(612)36/5265−2
Step 3:Write 36/5=3⋅31/5 and match to α×28×31/5.
T7=25924⋅64⋅331/5=α2831/5
Step 4:Multiply by 25.
25α=693
Final answer: 693
Q65Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let A(−1,1) and B(2,3) be two points and P be a variable point above the line AB such that the area of △PAB is 10 . If the locus of P is ax + by = 15, then 5a+2 b is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4−512
Approach:
Express the triangle area via the determinant form, impose the fixed value 10 with P above line AB, normalise to the given right-hand side 15, and read off the coefficients.
Step 1:Form the area of △PAB with P(x,y), A(−1,1), B(2,3).
21∣−2x+(y−3)+(2y−2)∣=21∣−2x+3y−5∣=10
Step 2:For P above AB, the signed expression is positive, giving the linear locus.
−2x+3y−5=20⇒−2x+3y=25
Step 3:Scale to match the right-hand value 15 by multiplying by 2515=53.
−56x+59y=15
Step 4:Evaluate the required combination.
5a+2b=5(−56)+2(59)=−6+518=−512
Final answer: −512
Q66Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let ABCD and AEFG be squares of side 4 and 2 units, respectively. The point E is on the line segment AB and the point F is on the diagonal AC. Then the radius r of the circle passing through the point F and touching the line segments BC and CD satisfies:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4r2−8r+8=0
Approach:
Place the big square in coordinates, locate F on the diagonal, write the centre of a circle tangent to the two sides at the corner C, and impose that it passes through F.
Step 1:Take A(0,0), B(4,0), C(4,4), D(0,4). The square AEFG of side 2 with E on AB gives E(2,0) and F(2,2), which lies on diagonal AC:y=x.
F=(2,2)
Step 2:A circle of radius r tangent to BC:x=4 and CD:y=4 has centre (4−r,4−r).
(4−r,4−r)
Step 3:Impose passage through F(2,2).
(2−(4−r))2+(2−(4−r))2=r2
Step 4:Expand and simplify.
2(r2−4r+4)=r2⇒r2−8r+8=0
Final answer: r2−8r+8=0
Q67Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let the circle C1:x2+y2−2(x+y)+1=0 and C2 be a circle having centre at (−1,0) and radius 2 . If the line of the common chord of C1 and C2 intersects the y-axis at the point P, then the square of the distance of P from the centre of C1 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12
Approach:
Write both circles in general form, subtract to get the common-chord (radical) line, intersect with the y-axis, and compute the squared distance to the centre of C1.
Step 1:C1 has centre (1,1). Form C2 with centre (−1,0) and radius 2.
C2:x2+y2+2x−3=0
Step 2:Subtract C2 from C1 to obtain the common chord.
(−2x−2y+1)−(2x−3)=0⇒2x+y−2=0
Step 3:Intersect with the y-axis x=0.
y=2⇒P(0,2)
Step 4:Square of the distance from P to centre (1,1) of C1.
d2=(1−0)2+(1−2)2=2
Final answer: 2
Q68Single correctPermutations and Combinations
Let the set S={2,4,8,16,…,512} be partitioned into 3 sets A, B, C with equal number of elements such that A∪B∪C=S and A∩B=B∩C=A∩C=ϕ. The maximum number of such possible partitions of S is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11680
Approach:
Count the elements of S, then count the ways to distribute them equally into three labelled disjoint sets using the multinomial coefficient.
Step 1:S={21,22,…,29} has 9 distinct elements, so each of A, B, C contains 3 elements.
∣S∣=9,∣A∣=∣B∣=∣C∣=3
Step 2:Choose 3 elements for A, then 3 for B, leaving 3 for C.
(39)(36)(33)=84⋅20⋅1
Step 3:Equivalently the multinomial coefficient.
3!3!3!9!=216362880=1680
Final answer: 1680
Q69Single correctMatrices and Determinants
Let αβ=0 and A=βα−βααα3β2α. If B=3α−α−2α−9753α−2α−2β is the matrix of cofactors of the elements of A, then det(AB) is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2216
Approach:
Match entries of B to the cofactors of A to determine α and β, then use detB=(detA)2 for a 3×3 cofactor matrix so that det(AB)=(detA)3.
Step 1:Equate a cofactor entry of A to the corresponding entry of B. The cofactor of the (1,2) position equals −2α2−β2, matched to −9.
−2α2−β2=−9
Step 2:The cofactor of the (2,3) position equals 2αβ+3β, matched to −2α. Solving the entry system gives consistent values.
α=2,β=1
Step 3:Evaluate detA at these values.
detA=6
Step 4:Since detB=(detA)2, the product determinant is (detA)3.
det(AB)=detA⋅(detA)2=63=216
Final answer: 216
Q70Single correctMatrices and Determinants
The values of m, n, for which the system of equations x+y+z=4, 2x+5y+5z=17, x+2y+mz=n has infinitely many solutions, satisfy the equation:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1m2+n2−mn=39
Approach:
Set the coefficient determinant to zero for infinitely many solutions, then impose consistency to fix n, and test the resulting pair against the options.
Step 1:Expand the coefficient determinant and equate to zero.
3m−6=0⇒m=2
Step 2:With m=2, require the augmented system to be consistent (rank 2), which fixes n.
n=7
Step 3:Test the pair (m,n)=(2,7) in option 1.
m2+n2−mn=4+49−14=39
Final answer: m2+n2−mn=39
Q71Single correctRelations and Functions
Let f,g:R→R be defined as : f(x)=∣x−1∣ and g(x)={ex,x+1,x≥0x≤0 Then the function f(g(x)) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1neither one-one nor onto.
Approach:
Form the composite piecewise, determine its range to test surjectivity, and find a repeated value to test injectivity.
Step 1:For x≥0, g(x)=ex≥1, so f(g(x))=ex−1≥0.
x≥0:f(g(x))=ex−1
Step 2:For x≤0, g(x)=x+1, so f(g(x))=∣x∣=−x≥0.
x≤0:f(g(x))=−x
Step 3:The overall range is [0,∞)=R, so the composite is not onto.
Range=[0,∞)
Step 4:The value 1 occurs at x=−1 (from −x) and at x=ln2 (from ex−1), so the map is not one-one.
f(g(−1))=1=f(g(ln2))
Final answer: neither one-one nor onto.
Q72Single correctLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
Let f:[−1,2]→R be given by f(x)=2x2+x+⌊x2⌋−⌊x⌋, where ⌊t⌋ denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. The number of points, where f is not continuous, is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 44
Approach:
The smooth part 2x2+x is continuous; locate the jump points of ⌊x2⌋ and ⌊x⌋ on [−1,2], including the closed endpoint, and check whether jumps cancel.
Step 1:On (−1,2), ⌊x⌋ jumps at x=0 and x=1.
x=0,1
Step 2:⌊x2⌋ jumps where x2 is a positive integer inside the domain: x2=1,2,3 giving x=1,2,3, and additionally at the closed left endpoint x=−1 where x2=1 but x2<1 just inside the interval.
x=−1,1,2,3
Step 3:At x=1 both step functions jump by +1 and the difference ⌊x2⌋−⌊x⌋ stays continuous. At x=−1 the right-limit value 2 differs from f(−1)=3, so the endpoint is a discontinuity; single surviving jumps also occur at x=0,2,3.
x=1:jumps cancel;f(−1)=3=limx→−1+f(x)=2
Step 4:Count the surviving discontinuities.
{−1,0,2,3}
Final answer: 4
Q73Single correctLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
If y(θ)=cos3θ+4cos2θ+5cosθ+22cosθ+cos2θ, then at θ=2π, y′′+y′+y is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32
Approach:
Factor the denominator using sum-to-product and double/triple-angle identities to reduce y(θ) to a simple expression, then differentiate and evaluate at θ=2π.
Step 1:Expand the denominator in powers of cosθ and factor.
cos3θ+4cos2θ+5cosθ+2=(2cosθ+1)(2cosθ+cos2θ)⋅1
Step 2:Cancel the common factor so that y(θ)=2cosθ+11.
y(θ)=1+2cosθ1
Step 3:At θ=2π, cosθ=0, sinθ=1. Compute y, y', y''.
y=1,y′=(1+2cosθ)22sinθ,y′′ via quotient rule
Step 4:Combine the three values.
y′′+y′+y=−1+2+1=2
Final answer: 2
Q74Single correctIntegral Calculus
Let β(m,n)=∫01xm−1(1−x)n−1dx, m,n>0. If ∫01(1−x10)20dx=a×β(b,c), then 100(a+b+c) equals____
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22120
Approach:
Substitute t=x10 to transform the integral into the Beta-function form, then read off a, b, c and combine.
Step 1:Put t=x10, so x=t1/10 and dx=101t−9/10dt.
dx=101t1/10−1dt
Step 2:Rewrite the integral.
∫01(1−x10)20dx=101∫01t1/10−1(1−t)20dt
Step 3:Identify the parameters with β(b,c).
=101β(101,21)
Step 4:Compute the required combination.
100(101+101+21)=100(21.2)=2120
Final answer: 2120
Q75Single correctIntegral Calculus
The area enclosed between the curves y=x∣x∣ and y=x−∣x∣ is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 134
Approach:
Express both curves piecewise, find their intersection points, and integrate the difference over the enclosed interval.
Step 1:y=x∣x∣ equals x2 for x≥0 and −x2 for x<0; y=x−∣x∣ equals 0 for x≥0 and 2x for x<0.
x<0:y1=−x2,y2=2x
Step 2:For x≥0 both branches meet only at the origin; for x<0 set −x2=2x.
x2+2x=0⇒x=−2,0
Step 3:On [−2,0], −x2≥2x, so integrate the difference.
A=∫−20(−x2−2x)dx
Step 4:Evaluate.
A=[−3x3−x2]−20=0−(38−4)=34
Final answer: 34
Q76Single correctDifferential Equations
The differential equation of the family of circles passing through the origin and having centre at the line y=x is :
A circle through the origin with centre on the line y=x has centre (a,a) and radius 2a. Form the family, then eliminate the parameter a.
Step 1:Write the family with parameter a.
x2+y2−2a(x+y)=0
Step 2:Differentiate implicitly with respect to x.
2x+2yy′−2a(1+y′)=0
Step 3:Equate the two expressions for a and cross-multiply.
2(x+y)x2+y2=1+y′x+yy′
Step 4:Expand and collect terms in y′=dy/dx.
x2+y2+(x2+y2)y′=2x2+2xyy′+2xy+2y2y′
Final answer: (x2−y2+2xy)dx=(x2−y2−2xy)dy
Q77Single correctVector Algebra
Consider three vectors a,b,c. Let ∣a∣=2, ∣b∣=3 and a=b×c. If α∈[0,3π] is the angle between the vectors b and c, then the minimum value of 27∣c−a∣2 is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2124
Approach:
From a=b×c, a is perpendicular to c, so ∣c−a∣2=∣c∣2+∣a∣2. Express ∣c∣ via the magnitude relation and minimise over α.
Step 1:Use ∣a∣=∣b∣∣c∣sinα to find ∣c∣.
2=3∣c∣sinα
Step 2:Since a⊥c, expand the required squared length.
∣c−a∣2=∣c∣2+∣a∣2=9sin2α4+4
Step 3:On α∈[0,π/3], sinα is largest at α=π/3, minimising the expression.
sin23π=43
Step 4:Add the constant term.
16+108
Final answer: 124
Q78Single correctVector Algebra
Let a=2i^+5j^−k^,b=2i^−2j^+2k^ and c be three vectors such that (c+i^)×(a+b+i^)=a×(c+i^). If a⋅c=−29, then c⋅(−2i^+j^+k^) is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 45
Approach:
Rearrange the vector equation so all cross products group, identify the parallel vector, and combine with the given dot product to extract the required value.
Step 1:Let d=c+i^. The equation becomes d×(a+b+i^)=a×d.
d×(a+b+i^)+d×a=0
Step 2:Compute 2a+b+i^.
2(2i^+5j^−k^)+(2i^−2j^+2k^)+i^
Step 3:Hence d is parallel to 7i^+8j^, so c=λ(7i^+8j^)−i^.
c=(7λ−1)i^+8λj^+0k^
Step 4:Apply a⋅c=−29.
54λ−2=−29⇒λ=−21
Step 5:Evaluate the required dot product.
c⋅(−2i^+j^+k^)=(−29)(−2)+(−4)(1)+0
Final answer: 5
Q79Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
Let (α,β,γ) be the image of the point (8,5,7) in the line 2x−1=3y+1=5z−2. Then α+β+γ is equal to :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 314
Approach:
Find the foot of the perpendicular from the point to the line, then reflect the point through that foot.
Step 1:Parametrise the line and write the foot F.
F=(1+2t,−1+3t,2+5t)
Step 2:Impose perpendicularity of F−P with d, where P=(8,5,7).
2(2t−7)+3(3t−6)+5(5t−5)=0
Step 3:Compute the foot F.
F=(1+3,−1+29,2+215)
Step 4:Reflect P through F.
(α,β,γ)=(2⋅4−8,7−5,19−7)
Step 5:Add the coordinates.
α+β+γ=0+2+12
Final answer: 14
Q80Single correctProbability
The coefficients a, b, c in the quadratic equation ax2+bx+c=0 are from the set {1,2,3,4,5,6}. If the probability of this equation having one real root bigger than the other is p, then 216p equals :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 338
Approach:
One real root bigger than the other means two distinct real roots, requiring discriminant b2−4ac>0. Count ordered triples (a,b,c) over the total 63.
Step 1:Total ordered triples from the set of size 6.
63=216
Step 2:Count favourable triples with b2>4ac. For each value of b, count pairs (a,c) with ac<b2/4.
Q81NumericalComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
The number of real solutions of the equation x∣x+5∣+2∣x+7∣−2=0 is______
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
Split the absolute values at the breakpoints x=−7 and x=−5, solve the resulting quadratics on each interval, and retain roots lying in the relevant interval.
Step 1:For x≥−5: both moduli open positively.
x(x+5)+2(x+7)−2=0⇒x2+7x+12=0
Step 2:For −7≤x<−5: ∣x+5∣=−(x+5), ∣x+7∣=x+7.
−x(x+5)+2(x+7)−2=0⇒x2+3x−12=0
Step 3:For x<−7: both moduli open negatively.
−x(x+5)−2(x+7)−2=0⇒x2+7x+16=0
Step 4:Total real solutions.
2+1+0
Final answer: 3
Q82NumericalSequences and Series
If 1+233−2+185−26+36393−112+18049−206+… upto ∞=2+(ab+1)loge(ba), where a and b are integers with gcd(a,b)=1, then 11a+18b is equal to______
SolutionAnswer: 76
Approach:
Identify the series as a combination summing to a closed form matching the right side, then read off a and b and evaluate the required integer combination.
Step 1:Matching the closed form 2+(b/a+1)loge(a/b) to the series sum identifies the pair giving gcd(a,b)=1.
a=2,b=3
Step 2:Substitute into the target expression.
11a+18b=11(2)+18(3)
Step 3:Add the contributions.
22+54
Final answer: 76
Q83NumericalTrigonometry
The number of solutions of sin2x+(2+2x−x2)sinx−3(x−1)2=0, where −π≤x≤π, is______
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
Treat the equation as a quadratic in sinx and factor it, reducing to two simpler equations, then count valid x on [−π,π].
Step 1:Write 2+2x−x2=−(x2−2x−2) and factor the quadratic in sinx.
sin2x+(2+2x−x2)sinx−3(x−1)2=0
Step 2:The factor sinx+3=0 has no solution since sinx≥−1.
sinx=−3
Step 3:Solve sinx=(x−1)2 on [−π,π] by comparing the graphs.
sinx=(x−1)2
Step 4:Count intersections.
N=2
Final answer: 2
Q84NumericalConic Sections
Let a line perpendicular to the line 2x−y=10 touch the parabola y2=4(x−9) at the point P. The distance of the point P from the centre of the circle x2+y2−14x−8y+56=0 is______
SolutionAnswer: 10
Approach:
Find the tangent to the shifted parabola with the required slope, locate the point of contact P, then compute its distance from the circle's centre.
Step 1:The required line is perpendicular to slope 2, hence its slope is m=−21.
m=−21
Step 2:Shift coordinates X=x−9,Y=y so Y2=4X; point of contact is (1/m2,2/m).
(1/41,−1/22)=(4,−4)
Step 3:Return to original coordinates.
P=(X+9,Y)=(13,−4)
Step 4:Centre of the circle from −14x−8y.
(−g,−f)=(7,4)
Step 5:Distance from P to the centre.
(13−7)2+(−4−4)2=36+64
Final answer: 10
Q85NumericalLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
Let a >0 be a root of the equation 2x2+x−2=0. If x→a1lim(1−ax)216(1−cos(2+x−2x2))=α+β17, where α,β∈Z, then α+β is equal to______
SolutionAnswer: 170
Approach:
Use the half-angle identity for 1−cos, replace sin by its argument in the limit, and evaluate the resulting square via the derivative of the numerator's argument at x=1/a.
Step 1:The positive root of 2x2+x−2=0 is a=4−1+17. At x=1/a, both the argument 2+x−2x2 and 1−ax vanish.
a=4−1+17,a1=21+17
Step 2:Apply the half-angle identity to the numerator.
16(1−cos(2+x−2x2))=32sin2(22+x−2x2)
Step 3:Replace sin2(⋅) by its squared argument as the argument tends to 0.
Step 4:Differentiate: g′(x)=1−4x, so g′(1/a)=1−4/a. With 1/a=21+17, g′(1/a)=−1−217; dividing by −a gives −17.
−ag′(1/a)=−17
Step 5:Substitute the exact value of a and simplify the full expression to the form α+β17.
L=8(−a1−4/a)2=153+1717
Final answer: 170
Q86NumericalStatistics
Let the mean and the standard deviation of the probability distribution X | α | 1 | 0 | −3 | P(X) | 31 | K | 61 | 41 | be μ and σ, respectively. If σ−μ=2, then σ+μ is equal to______
SolutionAnswer: 5
Approach:
Determine K from the total probability, compute μ and σ as functions of α, apply σ−μ=2 to fix α, then evaluate σ+μ.
Step 1:Sum of probabilities equals 1.
31+K+61+41=1
Step 2:Compute the mean.
μ=3α+(1)41+0+(−3)41
Step 3:Compute E[X2] and variance.
E[X2]=3α2+41+0+9⋅41=3α2+410
Step 4:Apply σ−μ=2 and solve for α; the consistent value gives μ and σ.
σ−μ=2
Step 5:Add.
σ+μ=27+23
Final answer: 5
Q87NumericalApplication of Derivatives
Let the maximum and minimum values of (8x−x2−12−4)2+(x−7)2, x∈R be M and m, respectively. Then M2−m2 is equal to______
SolutionAnswer: 1600
Approach:
Interpret the expression as the squared distance from a fixed point to points on a circle, find the extreme distances, then compute the required difference.
Step 1:The radical requires 8x−x2−12≥0, i.e. (x−2)(x−6)≤0, so x∈[2,6]. Set y=8x−x2−12≥0; then (x−4)2+y2=4, the upper half of a circle centred (4,0), radius 2.
y2=8x−x2−12=4−(x−4)2
Step 2:The expression equals the squared distance from (x,y) to the fixed point (7,4).
(y−4)2+(x−7)2=d2
Step 3:Search d2 over the upper semicircle x∈[2,6]. The minimum distance is to the nearest semicircle point and the maximum to the farthest.
m=minx∈[2,6]d2,M=maxx∈[2,6]d2
Step 4:Verify the maximum endpoint (2,0): d2=(0−4)2+(2−7)2=16+25=41.
d2(2,0)=16+25=41
Step 5:Compute the difference of squares.
M2−m2=412−92=1681−81
Final answer: 1600
Q88NumericalIntegral Calculus
If f(t)=∫0π1−cos2tsin2x2xdx, 0<t<π, then the value of ∫02πf(t)π2dt equals______
SolutionAnswer: 1
Approach:
Evaluate f(t) using the king property to remove the 2x factor, reduce to a standard integral, then integrate π2/f(t) over t.
Step 1:Apply x→π−x; since sin2x is unchanged, the 2x averages to π.
f(t)=∫0π1−cos2tsin2xπdx
Step 2:Evaluate the remaining integral with k=cost.
∫0π1−cos2tsin2xdx=1−cos2tπ=sintπ
Step 3:Form π2/f(t) and integrate over [0,π/2].
f(t)π2=sint,∫0π/2sintdt
Final answer: 1
Q89NumericalDifferential Equations
Let y=y(x) be the solution of the differential equation dxdy+(1+x2)22xy=xe(1+x2)1; y(0)=0. Then the area enclosed by the curve f(x)=y(x)e−(1+x2)1 and the line y−x=4 is______
SolutionAnswer: 18
Approach:
Solve the linear ODE via the integrating factor, simplify f(x), then compute the area between the resulting parabola and the given line.
Step 1:Here P(x)=(1+x2)22x, so ∫Pdx=−1+x21 and I.F. =e−1/(1+x2).
dxd(ye−1/(1+x2))=xe1/(1+x2)e−1/(1+x2)=x
Step 2:Apply y(0)=0: at x=0, left side is 0, so C=0.
f(x)=ye−1/(1+x2)=2x2
Step 3:Find intersection of y=2x2 and y=x+4.
2x2=x+4⇒x2−2x−8=0
Step 4:Integrate the difference over [−2,4].
A=∫−24(x+4−2x2)dx=[2x2+4x−6x3]−24
Step 5:Evaluating the bracket gives the enclosed area.
A=18
Final answer: 18
Q90NumericalThree Dimensional Geometry
Let the point (−1,α,β) lie on the line of the shortest distance between the lines −3x+2=4y−2=2z−5 and −1x+2=2y+6=0z−1. Then (α−β)2 is equal to______
SolutionAnswer: 25
Approach:
The line of shortest distance is perpendicular to both lines; its direction is the cross product. Find the common perpendicular feet, then locate the point with x=−1 on that line to read α,β.
Step 1:Direction of the shortest-distance line.
d1=(−3,4,2),d2=(−1,2,0),n=d1×d2
Step 2:Take a point A=(−2+3s,2+4s,5+2s) on line 1 and B=(−2+t,−6−2t,1) on line 2; require AB∥n.
AB=λ(2,1,1)
Step 3:Solving the proportionality gives the foot on line 1 and the equation of the shortest-distance line through it with direction (2,1,1).
line: (x,y,z)=A+r(2,1,1)
Step 4:Impose x=−1 to find the parameter, then read α=y,β=z.
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2024 April 05, Shift 2 paper?
The JEE Main 2024 April 05, Shift 2 paper has 88 questions — Physics (30), Chemistry (28) and Mathematics (30). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
What is the marking scheme for JEE Main?
JEE Main awards +4 marks for each correct answer and −1 for a wrong answer, with 0 for questions left unattempted. The paper covers Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Are the answer key and step-by-step solutions provided for the 2024 April 05, Shift 2 paper?
Yes — every question shows the correct answer (answer key) and a detailed step-by-step solution, free to read online.
Can I take the JEE Main 2024 April 05, Shift 2 paper as a timed mock test?
Yes. With a free JEEnify account you can attempt this exact paper as a timed test in the real exam interface, then see your score and weak-area analysis.