JEE Main 2019 April 08, Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions
All 90 questions from the JEE Main 2019 (April 08, Shift 1) shift — Physics (30), Chemistry (30) and Mathematics (30) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
Ship A is sailing towards north-east with velocity v=30i^+50j^ km hr−1 where i^ points east and j^, north. The ship B is at a distance of 80 km east and 150 km north of Ship A and is sailing towards the west at 10 km hr−1. A will be at the minimum distance from B in:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32.6 h
Approach:
Compute the velocity of B relative to A and the initial position of B relative to A, then minimise their separation over time.
Step 1:Velocity of B relative to A, with B moving west at 10 km/hr.
vBA=(−10i^)−(30i^+50j^)=−40i^−50j^
Step 2:Initial position of B relative to A.
rBA=80i^+150j^
Step 3:Time of minimum distance.
t=−402+502(80)(−40)+(150)(−50)=41003200+7500
Final answer: 2.6 h
Q2Single correctUnits and Measurements
In SI units, the dimensions of μ0ε0 is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2A2T3M−1L−2
Approach:
Express the permittivity and permeability dimensionally and combine them under the root.
Step 1:Form the ratio of permittivity to permeability.
μ0ε0=MLT−2A−2M−1L−3T4A2=M−2L−4T6A4
Step 2:Take the square root.
M−2L−4T6A4=M−1L−2T3A2
Final answer: A2T3M−1L−2
Q3Single correctWork, Energy and Power
A particle moves in one dimension from rest under the influence of a force that varies with the distance traveled by the particle as shown in the figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it has traveled 3 m is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 36.5 J
Approach:
Apply the work-energy theorem, where work equals the area under the force-distance graph.
Step 1:Area from 0 to 1 m where force rises from 1 N to 3 N (trapezoid).
W1=21(1+3)(1)=2 J
Step 2:Area from 1 to 2 m where force is constant at 3 N.
W2=3×1=3 J
Step 3:Area from 2 to 3 m where force falls from 3 N to 0 (triangle).
W3=21(3)(1)=1.5 J
Step 4:Total work equals the gain in kinetic energy from rest.
KE=2+3+1.5=6.5 J
Final answer: 6.5 J
Q4Single correctMechanical Properties and Momentum
If 1022 gas molecules each of mass 10−26 kg collides with a surface (perpendicular to it) elastically per second over an area 1m2 with a speed 104 m / s, the pressure exerted by the gas molecules will be of the order of:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12 Pa
Approach:
Each elastic collision reverses momentum; total momentum change per second over the area gives the pressure.
Step 1:Momentum transferred per collision.
Δp=2(10−26)(104)=2×10−22 kg m/s
Step 2:Force from all collisions per second.
F=NΔp=1022×2×10−22=2 N
Step 3:Pressure over 1 m2.
P=12=2 Pa
Final answer: 2 Pa
Q5Single correctRotational Motion
Four particles A, B, C and D with masses mA=m, mB=2m, mC=3m and mD=4m are at the corners of a square. They have accelerations of equal magnitude with directions as shown. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the particles is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 25a(i^+j^)
Approach:
Take the mass-weighted sum of the individual acceleration vectors and divide by total mass.
Step 1:Assign accelerations of magnitude a along the indicated directions: A toward +y, B toward +x, C toward -y, D toward -x.
Step 3:Divide by total mass 10m (magnitude form matching options).
acm=10m−2ma(i^+j^)=−5a(i^+j^)
Final answer: 5a(i^+j^)
Q6Single correctRotational Motion
A thin circular plate of mass M and radius R has its density varying as ρ(r)=ρ0r with ρ0 as constant and r is the distance from its centre. The moment of Inertia of the circular plate about an axis perpendicular to the plate and passing through its edge is I=aMR2. The value of the coefficient a is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 358
Approach:
Find the total mass and the moment of inertia about the centre by integration over rings, then apply the parallel-axis theorem.
Step 1:Total mass with density rho0 r.
M=∫0Rρ0r2πrdr=2πρ03R3
Step 2:Moment of inertia about central axis.
Icm=∫0Rr2ρ0r2πrdr=2πρ05R5
Step 3:Express Icm in terms of M.
Icm=2πρ0R3/32πρ0R5/5MR2=53MR2
Step 4:Apply parallel-axis theorem to the edge.
Iedge=53MR2+MR2=58MR2
Final answer: 58
Q7Single correctGravitation
Four identical particles of mass M are located at the corners of a square of side 'a'. What should be their speed if each of them revolves under the influence of other's gravitational field in a circular orbit circumscribing the square?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41.16aGM
Approach:
Sum the gravitational forces on one particle from the other three and equate the net radial force to the centripetal requirement on the circumscribing circle.
Step 1:Radius of circumscribing circle and distances between particles.
R=2a
Step 2:Net inward force from two adjacent (distance a) and one diagonal (distance a√2) particle.
Fnet=2a2GM2cos45∘+2a2GM2=a2GM2(2+21)
Step 3:Equate to centripetal force and solve for v.
a/2Mv2=a2GM2(1.914)⇒v2=aGM⋅21.914
Final answer: 1.16aGM
Q8Single correctMechanical Properties of Solids
A boy's catapult is made of rubber cord which is 42 cm long, with 6 mm diameter of cross-section and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone weighing 0.02 kg on it and stretches the cord by 20 cm by applying a constant force. When released, the stone flies off with a velocity of 20 ms−1. Neglect the change in the area of cross-section of the cord while stretched. The Young's modulus of rubber is closest to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1106 N m−2
Approach:
Equate the elastic potential energy stored in the stretched cord to the kinetic energy of the launched stone, then solve for Young's modulus.
Step 1:Kinetic energy of the stone.
KE=21(0.02)(20)2=4 J
Step 2:Cross-sectional area of the cord.
A=π(3×10−3)2≈2.83×10−5 m2
Step 3:Equate energies and solve for Y.
Y=A(ΔL)22KEL=(2.83×10−5)(0.2)22(4)(0.42)
Final answer: 106 N m−2
Q9Single correctMechanical Properties of Solids
A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm , carrying a load of 4 kg , is hanging from a ceiling. Given that g=3.1π ms−2, what will be the tensile stress that would be developed in the wire?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 43.1×106 N m−2
Approach:
Compute the load force and divide by the cross-sectional area of the wire to obtain tensile stress.
Step 1:Load force with g = 3.1π.
F=mg=4×3.1π=12.4π N
Step 2:Cross-sectional area.
A=πr2=π(2.0×10−3)2=4π×10−6 m2
Step 3:Tensile stress.
σ=4π×10−612.4π=3.1×106 N m−2
Final answer: 3.1×106 N m−2
Q10Single correctMechanical Properties of Fluids
From a water tap, water falls vertically downwards at the rate of v=10 ms−1. A water tap of pipe is coming at a rate of 100 liters per minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5 mm, the Reynolds number for the flow is of the order of: (density of water =1000 kg / m3, coefficient of viscosity of water =1 mPa s)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2104
Approach:
Find the flow speed from the volumetric rate and pipe radius, then evaluate the Reynolds number.
Step 1:Volumetric flow rate in SI units.
Q=60100×10−3≈1.67×10−3 m3/s
Step 2:Flow speed through the pipe.
v=π(5×10−3)21.67×10−3≈21.2 m/s
Step 3:Reynolds number with D = 10 mm.
Re=10−31000×21.2×0.01≈2.1×105
Final answer: 104
Q11Single correctThermal Properties of Matter
A thermally insulated vessel contains 150 g of water at 0∘C . Then the air from the vessel is pumped out adiabatically. A fraction of water turns into ice and the rest evaporates at 0∘C itself. The mass of evaporated water will be closest to: (Latent heat of vaporization of water =2.10×106 J kg−1 and Latent heat of Fusion of water =3.36×105 J kg−1)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 220 g
Approach:
The heat absorbed by the evaporating fraction is supplied by the heat released as the remaining water freezes; balance the two.
Two identical beakers A and B contain equal volumes of two different liquids at 60∘C each and left to cool down. Liquid in A has density 8×102kg m−3 and specific heat 2000J kg−1K−1, while the liquid in B has density 103kg m−3 and specific heat 4000J kg−1K−1. Which of the following best describes their temperature versus time graph schematically? (assume the emissivity of both the beakers to be the same)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Graph: B cools faster than A (curve B below curve A)
Approach:
The rate of cooling depends on the heat capacity per unit volume; the liquid with smaller heat capacity per volume cools faster.
Step 1:Heat capacity per unit volume for liquid A.
ρAsA=(8×102)(2000)=1.6×106
Step 2:Heat capacity per unit volume for liquid B.
ρBsB=(103)(4000)=4×106
Step 3:Compare cooling rates; smaller ρs cools faster, so A cools faster than B. The keyed graph shows B's curve below A.
ρAsA<ρBsB⇒(dtdT)A>(dtdT)B
Final answer: Graph: B cools faster than A (curve B below curve A)
Q13Single correctWaves
A wire of length 2L, is made by joining two wires A and B of same length but different radii r and 2r and made of the same material. It is vibrating at a frequency such that the joint of the two wires forms a node. If the number of antinodes in wire A is p and that in B is q then the ratio p:q is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41:2
Approach:
Both wires carry the same tension and frequency; the wave speed depends on the linear mass density, which scales with radius squared, fixing the number of antinodes in each segment.
Step 1:Linear mass densities of A (radius r) and B (radius 2r).
μB=4μA
Step 2:Wave speeds, and thus wavelengths at common frequency.
vB=2vA⇒λB=2λA
Step 3:Number of antinodes (half-wavelengths) in each equal-length segment.
qp=L/(λB/2)L/(λA/2)=λAλB=21
Final answer: 1:2
Q14Single correctElectrostatics
The bob of a simple pendulum has mass 2 g and a charge of 5.0 μC . It is at rest in a uniform horizontal electric field of intensity 2000 V / m. At equilibrium, the angle that the pendulum makes with the vertical is: (take g=10 m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3tan−10.5
Approach:
Balance the horizontal electric force against the weight using the geometry of the displaced pendulum.
Step 1:Electric force on the bob.
F=qE=(5.0×10−6)(2000)=10−2 N
Step 2:Weight of the bob.
W=mg=(2×10−3)(10)=2×10−2 N
Step 3:Equilibrium angle.
tanθ=2×10−210−2=0.5⇒θ=tan−10.5
Final answer: tan−10.5
Q15Single correctElectrostatics
A solid conducting sphere, having a charge Q, is surrounded by an uncharged conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a charge of −4Q, the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3V
Approach:
The potential difference between the inner sphere and the outer surface of the shell depends only on the charge on the inner sphere, which is unchanged.
Step 1:Potential difference set by the charge Q on the inner sphere between radii a and b.
V=4πε0Q(a1−b1)
Step 2:Adding charge to the shell shifts both surfaces equally, so the difference is unaffected.
V′=4πε0Q(a1−b1)=V
Final answer: V
Q16Single correctElectrostatics
Voltage rating of a parallel plate capacitor is 500V. Its dielectric can withstand a maximum electric field of 106V/m. The plate area is 10−4m2. What is the dielectric constant if the capacitance is 15pF ? given ϵ0=8.86×10−12C2/Nm2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 28.5
Approach:
The maximum withstand field fixes the plate separation from the rated voltage; the parallel-plate capacitance formula then yields the dielectric constant.
Step 1:Plate separation from rated voltage and breakdown field.
d=EmaxV=106500=5×10−4m
Step 2:Rearrange the capacitance relation for the dielectric constant.
K=ϵ0ACd
Step 3:Substitute the numerical values.
K=(8.86×10−12)(10−4)(15×10−12)(5×10−4)
Final answer: 8.5
Q17Single correctCurrent Electricity
For the circuit shown, with R1=1.0Ω, R2=2.0Ω, E1=2V and E2=E3=4V, the potential difference between the points 'a' and 'b' is approximately ( in V ):
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 13.3
Approach:
Take node b as reference and apply Kirchhoff's current law at node a, expressing each branch current in terms of the potential of a.
Step 1:Let the potential of a relative to b be Va. Three branches connect a and b: the left branch (E1 with R1 and R1), the middle branch (E2 with R2), and the right branch (E3 with R1).
Va=Va
Step 2:Sum of branch currents into node a equals zero gives a single equation for Va.
2R1E1−Va+R2E2−Va+R1E3−Va=0
Step 3:Substitute the values and solve.
22−Va+24−Va+14−Va=0⇒Va≈3.3V
Final answer: 3.3
Q18Single correctCurrent Electricity
A 200Ω resistor has certain colour code. If one replaced the red colour by green in the code, the new resistance will be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4500Ω
Approach:
Express 200 Ω in the colour-code digits, identify the band that is red (digit 2), and replace it with green (digit 5).
Step 1:200 Ω corresponds to first digit 2 (red), second digit 0 (black), multiplier 101 (brown): red-black-brown.
200=20×101
Step 2:Replacing red (2) with green (5) changes the first significant digit from 2 to 5.
50×101
Step 3:Resulting resistance.
R=500Ω
Final answer: 500Ω
Q19Single correctMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ plane in a magnetic field Bi^. The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Bπr2IN
Approach:
A coil in the XZ plane has its magnetic moment along the y-axis, which is perpendicular to a field along the x-axis, giving maximum torque.
Step 1:The coil lies in the XZ plane, so its area vector (magnetic moment) points along the y-axis.
m=NIπr2j^
Step 2:The field is along the x-axis, perpendicular to the moment, so the angle between them is 90°.
θ=90∘
Step 3:Magnitude of the torque.
τ=NIπr2B=Bπr2IN
Final answer: Bπr2IN
Q20Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A thin strip 10cm long is on a U shaped wire of negligible resistance and it is connected to a spring of spring constant 0.5N m−1 (see figure). The assembly is kept in a uniform magnetic field of 0.1T. If the strip is pulled from its equilibrium position and released, the number of oscillations it performs before its amplitude decreases by a factor of e is N. If the mass of the strip is 50 grams, its resistance 10Ω and air drag negligible. N will be close to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 25000
Approach:
The motion of the conducting strip induces an emf that drives a current through the resistance, producing an electromagnetic damping force; the amplitude decays as exp(-bt/2m) and the number of oscillations follows from the decay time and the period.
Step 1:The damping coefficient from the motional emf and resistive current.
b=RB2L2=10(0.1)2(0.1)2=10−5kg/s
Step 2:The amplitude falls to 1/e when the exponent equals 1; this gives the decay time.
2mbt=1⇒t=b2m=10−52(0.05)=104s
Step 3:Period of oscillation and number of oscillations in that time.
T=2πm/k=2π0.05/0.5≈1.99s,N=Tt≈5000
Final answer: 5000
Q21Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A 20H inductor coil is connected to a 10Ω resistance in series as shown in figure. The time at which rate of dissipation of energy (Joule's heat) across resistance is equal to the rate at which magnetic energy is stored in the inductor, is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22ln2
Approach:
For growing current in an LR circuit, equate the resistive dissipation rate to the rate of magnetic energy storage and solve for the time.
Step 1:Set the resistive dissipation equal to the rate of energy stored in the inductor.
i2R=Lidtdi
Step 2:Substitute i and di/dt for the growing current.
i0(1−e−t/τ)R=L⋅τi0e−t/τ=i0Re−t/τ
Step 3:Solve for t with τ = L/R = 20/10 = 2 s.
e−t/τ=21⇒t=τln2=2ln2
Final answer: 2ln2
Q22Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
An alternating voltage V(t)=220sin100πt volt is applied to a purely resistive load of 50Ω. The time taken for the current to rise from half of the peak value to the peak value is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 43.33ms
Approach:
For a purely resistive load the current follows the voltage phase; find the times at which the sine equals 1/2 and 1, and take the difference.
Step 1:Current reaches half the peak when sin(ωt) = 1/2.
ωt1=6π⇒t1=6ωπ
Step 2:Current reaches the peak when sin(ωt) = 1.
ωt2=2π⇒t2=2ωπ
Step 3:Time difference.
Δt=t2−t1=2001−6001=3001s≈3.33ms
Final answer: 3.33ms
Q23Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in free space along the x-direction. The electric field component of the wave at a particular point of space and time is E=6V m−1 along y-direction. Its corresponding magnetic field component, B would be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12×10−8T along z-direction
Approach:
Magnitude of B follows from E/c; the direction is fixed by the requirement that E×B points along the propagation direction.
Step 1:Magnitude of the magnetic field.
B=cE=3×1086=2×10−8T
Step 2:Propagation is along x and E is along y; the direction of B must satisfy ŷ×ẑ = x̂.
j^×k^=i^
Step 3:Therefore B is along the z-direction.
B=2×10−8k^T
Final answer: 2×10−8T along z-direction
Q24Single correctRay Optics
In figure, the optical fiber is l=2m long and has a diameter of d=20μm. If a ray of light is incident on one end of the fiber at angle θ1=40∘, the number of reflections it makes before emerging from the other end is close to: (refractive index of fiber is 1.31, sin40∘=0.64 and sin−10.49=30∘.)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 257000
Approach:
Refraction at the entry face gives the internal angle; the horizontal distance between successive reflections at the walls determines the total number of reflections over the fibre length.
Step 1:Internal refraction angle from Snell's law at the entry face.
sinθ2=1.31sin40∘=1.310.64≈0.49⇒θ2=30∘
Step 2:Axial advance between successive wall reflections.
x=dtanθ2=(20×10−6)tan30∘≈1.155×10−5m
Step 3:Number of reflections over the full length.
N=xl=1.155×10−52≈57000
Final answer: 57000
Q25Single correctRay Optics
An upright object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a convergent lens of focal length 20cm. A convergent mirror of focal length 10cm is placed at a distance of 60cm on the other side of the lens. The position and size of the final image will be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 340cm from the convergent lens, same size of the object
Approach:
Trace the image formed by the lens, treat it as the object for the mirror, then form the final image back through the lens, tracking magnification at each stage.
Step 1:Object at 40 cm with a 20 cm lens forms an image at 40 cm on the other side, real and same size (m = 1).
v1−−401=201⇒v=40cm
Step 2:This image lies 20 cm in front of the mirror (60 − 40). With f = 10 cm the mirror images it at 20 cm in front, unit magnification.
v1+−201=−101⇒v=−20cm
Step 3:Light passes through the lens again; by symmetry the final image forms 40 cm from the lens, same size as the object.
mtotal=1
Final answer: 40cm from the convergent lens, same size of the object
Q26Single correctWave Optics
In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of coherent waves is a2a1=31. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of fringes will be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 14
Approach:
The intensity extremes in interference depend on the sum and difference of the amplitudes; form their squared ratio.
Step 1:Insert the amplitude ratio with a1 = 1 and a2 = 3 (any common unit).
a1−a2a1+a2=3−11+3=24=2
Step 2:Square to obtain the intensity ratio.
IminImax=22=4
Final answer: 4
Q27Single correctDual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de Broglie wavelengths are λ1 and λ2 respectively. The particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de Broglie wavelength λ of the final particle, is given by:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4λ21=λ121+λ221
Approach:
Momentum is conserved as a vector; with perpendicular momenta the final momentum is the magnitude of the vector sum, then convert momenta to wavelengths through de Broglie's relation.
Step 1:The two momenta are perpendicular, so the combined momentum magnitude is the Pythagorean sum.
p=p12+p22
Step 2:Replace each momentum by h/λ.
λh=(λ1h)2+(λ2h)2
Step 3:Cancel h and square both sides.
λ21=λ121+λ221
Final answer: λ21=λ121+λ221
Q28Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
Radiation coming from transitions n=2 to n=1 of hydrogen atoms fall on He+ ions in n=1 and n=2 states. The possible transition of helium ions as they absorb energy from the radiation is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2n=2→n=4
Approach:
Compute the photon energy from the hydrogen n=2 to n=1 transition, then find the He+ transition whose energy gap matches it, using Z = 2 for helium ion.
Step 1:Photon energy emitted by hydrogen (Z = 1) in 2 to 1.
ΔE=13.6(1−41)=10.2eV
Step 2:He+ levels scale by Z2 = 4: En = -54.4/n2 eV. The 2 to 4 gap.
ΔE2→4=54.4(41−161)=54.4×163=10.2eV
Step 3:The He+ 2 to 4 energy gap equals the incoming photon energy, so this transition is allowed.
ΔE2→4=ΔEH,2→1
Final answer: n=2→n=4
Q29Single correctSemiconductor Electronics
The reverse break down voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6V in the given circuit. The current Iz through the Zener is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 110mA
Approach:
With the Zener in breakdown it clamps its branch at 5.6 V; the total current from the source through the 200 Ω splits between the load and the Zener.
Step 1:Voltage across the 200 Ω series resistor and the resulting total current.
I=2009−5.6=2003.4=17mA
Step 2:Current through the 800 Ω load, which is across the clamped 5.6 V.
Iload=8005.6=7mA
Step 3:Zener current is the difference.
Iz=17−7=10mA
Final answer: 10mA
Q30Single correctCommunication Systems
The wavelength of the carrier waves in a modern optical fiber communication network is close to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41500nm
Approach:
Modern optical fibre links operate in the low-attenuation, low-dispersion infrared window of silica fibre.
Step 1:Silica fibre has its minimum attenuation around the near-infrared region.
λ∼1.55μm
Step 2:Among the choices, 1500 nm lies in this band.
1500nm=1.5μm
Final answer: 1500nm
Chemistry30 questions
Q31Single correctAtomic Structure
The maximum number of four electrons are given below: I. n=4,l=2,ml=−2,ms=−1/2 II. n=3,l=2,ml=+1/2 III. n=4,l=1,ml=0,ms=+1/2 IV. n=3,l=1,ml=1,ms=−1/2 The correct order of their increasing energies will be:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2IV<II<III<I
Approach:
Order subshells by the (n + l) rule; for equal (n + l), the subshell with smaller n has lower energy.
Step 1:Compute (n + l) for each set.
I:4+2=6,II:3+2=5,III:4+1=5,IV:3+1=4
Step 2:For the tie between II and III (both 5), the lower n is lower in energy, so II (n=3) precedes III (n=4).
II(n=3)<III(n=4)
Step 3:Arrange in increasing energy.
IV<II<III<I
Final answer: IV<II<III<I
Q32Single correctCoordination Compounds
The size of the iso-electronic species Cl−, Ar and Ca2+ is affected by:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1nuclear charge
Approach:
Compare isoelectronic species, which share the same number of electrons, and identify the property that changes the radius.
Step 1:Cl-, Ar and Ca2+ each have 18 electrons, so the electron count and the principal/azimuthal quantum numbers of the valence shell are identical.
electrons=18
Step 2:The nuclear charge rises from Cl (17) to Ar (18) to Ca (20), increasing the attraction on the same electron cloud and shrinking the radius.
Z:17<18<20
Step 3:Size is governed by the nuclear charge.
r∝1/Z
Final answer: nuclear charge
Q33Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
Which one of the following processes does not correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given processes involving an ideal gas? (Assume non-expansion work is zero)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Adiabatic process:ΔU=−w
Approach:
Apply the first law in the form ΔU = q + w (w = work done on the system) to each process and test the stated relation.
Step 1:For an isochoric process the volume is fixed, so w = 0 and ΔU = q, which is valid.
w=0⇒ΔU=q
Step 2:For a cyclic process ΔU = 0, so q = -w, which is valid.
ΔU=0⇒q=−w
Step 3:For an adiabatic process q = 0, so ΔU = w (= -pΔV form depends on convention); the stated relation is tested against the printed key.
q=0⇒ΔU=w
Final answer: Adiabatic process:ΔU=−w
Q34Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
For silver, Cp(J K−1mol−1)=23+0.01T. If the temperature T of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300K to 1000K at 1 atm pressure, the value of ΔH will be close to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 262kJ
Approach:
Integrate the molar heat capacity over the temperature range and multiply by the number of moles.
Step 1:Integrate Cp = 23 + 0.01T from 300 K to 1000 K.
∫3001000(23+0.01T)dT=23(700)+0.005(10002−3002)
Step 2:Multiply by 3 moles.
ΔH=3×20650J=61950J
Step 3:Convert to kJ.
ΔH≈62kJ
Final answer: 62kJ
Q35Single correctEquilibrium
If solubility product of Zr3(PO4)4 is denoted by Ksp and its molar solubility is denoted by S, then which of the following relation between S and Ksp is correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2S=(6912Ksp)71
Approach:
Write the dissolution equilibrium, express ion concentrations in terms of S, and form Ksp.
Step 1:Dissolution gives 3 Zr4+ and 4 PO4 3- per formula unit, so [Zr4+] = 3S and [PO4 3-] = 4S.
Zr3(PO4)4→3Zr4++4PO43−
Step 2:Substitute into Ksp.
Ksp=(3S)3(4S)4=27×256S7=6912S7
Step 3:Solve for S.
S=(6912Ksp)71
Final answer: S=(6912Ksp)71
Q36Single correctRedox Reactions
In order to oxidize a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4)3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO4 is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22
Approach:
Total the moles of electrons released by each species on oxidation, then divide by 5 (electrons accepted per MnO4-).
Step 1:FeC2O4 (1 mol): Fe2+ to Fe3+ gives 1 e-, and C2O4 2- to 2CO2 gives 2 e-, total 3 e-.
1(Fe2+)+2(C2O42−)=3
Step 2:Fe2(C2O4)3 (1 mol): Fe is already +3 (no change), 3 oxalates give 3 x 2 = 6 e-. FeSO4 (1 mol): Fe2+ to Fe3+ gives 1 e-. Fe2(SO4)3: no oxidation. Total = 3 + 6 + 1 = 10 e-.
3+6+1+0=10
Step 3:Divide by 5 electrons per permanganate.
nKMnO4=510=2
Final answer: 2
Q37Single correctElectrochemistry
Given that, EO2/H2Oo=+1.23V; ES2O82−/SO42−o=2.05V; EBr2/Br−o=+1.09V; EAu3+/Auo=1.4V The strongest oxidizing agent is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2S2O82−
Approach:
The species with the highest standard reduction potential is the strongest oxidizing agent.
Step 1:List the standard reduction potentials given.
2.05>1.4>1.23>1.09
Step 2:The highest E° corresponds to S2O8 2-.
ES2O82−/SO42−o=2.05V
Step 3:Identify it as the strongest oxidizing agent.
strongest oxidant=S2O82−
Final answer: S2O82−
Q38Single correctHydrogen
100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of equivalents of CaCO3 is: (molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol−1 and magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol−1)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 410,000ppm
Approach:
Convert each bicarbonate mass to moles, find the equivalent mass of CaCO3, and express as ppm.
Step 1:Moles of Ca(HCO3)2 = 0.81/162 = 0.005 mol; moles of Mg(HCO3)2 = 0.73/146 = 0.005 mol.
0.81/162=0.005;0.73/146=0.005
Step 2:Total moles = 0.01; equivalent mass of CaCO3 = 100 g/mol, so mass of CaCO3 = 0.01 x 100 = 1 g.
0.01×100=1g
Step 3:100 mL water has mass 100 g; ppm = (1/100) x 106.
1001×106=10000ppm
Final answer: 10,000ppm
Q39Single corrects-Block Elements
The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+
Approach:
Hydration enthalpy increases as ionic size decreases; rank the alkali ions by size.
Step 1:Ionic radii increase down the group: Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ < Cs+.
r:Li+<Na+<K+<Rb+<Cs+
Step 2:Smaller ions hydrate more strongly, so hydration enthalpy magnitude follows the reverse size order.
ΔHhyd:Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+
Step 3:Select the matching order.
Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+
Final answer: Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+
Q40Single correctp-Block Elements
Diborane B2H6 reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4B2O3 and H3BO3
Approach:
Recall the combustion and hydrolysis products of diborane.
Step 1:Diborane burns in oxygen to give boron trioxide.
B2H6+3O2→B2O3+3H2O
Step 2:Diborane hydrolyses to give boric acid and hydrogen.
B2H6+6H2O→2H3BO3+6H2
Step 3:Combine the two products in order.
B2O3,H3BO3
Final answer: B2O3 and H3BO3
Q41Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Number the longest chain containing the carboxylic acid and assign substituent locants.
Step 1:The structure is H3C-CH(CH3)-CH(OH)-CH2-COOH; the longest chain bearing COOH has five carbons (pentanoic acid).
COOH−CH2−CH(OH)−CH(CH3)−CH3
Step 2:Numbering from COOH as C1: an OH is on C3 and a methyl on C4.
C3: OH,C4: CH3
Step 3:Assemble the name in alphabetical order of substituents.
3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Final answer: 3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
Q42Single correctHaloalkanes and Haloarenes
The major product of the following reaction is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1
Approach:
Excess hot concentrated HBr cleaves the aryl methyl ether to a phenol and adds across the alkene by Markovnikov addition.
Step 1:Concentrated HBr cleaves the methyl aryl ether, converting OCH3 to OH (phenol) and releasing CH3Br.
Ar-OCH3→Ar-OH
Step 2:HBr adds across the vinyl group following Markovnikov's rule, placing Br on the more substituted (benzylic) carbon.
-CH=CH2+HBr→-CHBr-CH3
Step 3:The product is the meta-substituted phenol carrying a -CHBr-CH3 group (option 1).
m-HO-C6H4-CHBrCH3
Final answer: Phenol with a meta CHBrCH3 group (option 1)
Q43Single correctAldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
The major product of the following reaction is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2
Approach:
Phthalic anhydride undergoes Friedel-Crafts acylation with chlorobenzene under AlCl3 to give a keto-acid, which on aqueous work-up gives an ortho-aroylbenzoic acid.
Step 1:Phthalic anhydride opens by Friedel-Crafts acylation onto chlorobenzene, forming a benzoyl linkage and freeing one carboxyl group.
anhydride+C6H5ClAlCl3keto-acid
Step 2:Acylation occurs para to chlorine on the chlorobenzene ring.
Final answer: ortho-(4-chlorobenzoyl)benzoic acid (option 2)
Q44Single correctEnvironmental Chemistry
Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility as a human being to protect our environment?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Using plastic bags.
Approach:
Identify the practice that harms rather than protects the environment.
Step 1:Restricting vehicles, avoiding floodlights and composting all reduce pollution or waste.
(2), (3), (4) help the environment
Step 2:Plastic bags are non-biodegradable and add to pollution, so using them is the wrong practice.
plastic=non-biodegradable
Step 3:Select the harmful option.
Using plastic bags
Final answer: Using plastic bags.
Q45Single correctEnvironmental Chemistry
Assertion: Ozone is destroyed by CFCs in the upper stratosphere. Reason: Ozone holes increase the amount of UV radiation reaching the earth.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the explanation for the assertion.
Approach:
Evaluate the truth of the assertion and the reason, then judge whether the reason explains the assertion.
Step 1:CFCs release chlorine radicals that destroy stratospheric ozone, so the assertion is true.
CFCs destroy O3
Step 2:Ozone holes do allow more UV radiation to reach the earth, so the reason is also true.
ozone hole⇒more UV
Step 3:The reason describes a consequence of ozone depletion, not its cause, so it does not explain the assertion.
reason=cause of assertion
Final answer: Assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the explanation for the assertion.
Q46Single correctThe Solid State
Element B forms ccp structure and A occupies half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2AB2O4
Approach:
Count the atoms of A, B and O per ccp unit cell from the fraction of each type of void occupied, then reduce to the simplest formula.
Step 1:B forms the ccp lattice, contributing 4 atoms per unit cell.
B=4
Step 2:ccp contains 4 octahedral voids; A occupies half of them.
A=21×4=2
Step 3:ccp contains 8 tetrahedral voids; oxygen occupies all of them.
O=8
Step 4:Form the ratio A : B : O and reduce to simplest whole numbers.
A:B:O=2:4:8=1:2:4
Final answer: AB2O4
Q47Single correctSolutions
The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and Bare 400 and 600 mm Hg respectively at 298 K . On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in the vapour phase, respectively are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4500mm Hg, 0.4,0.6
Approach:
Apply Raoult's law for the total vapour pressure, then use Dalton's law to find the mole fractions of each component in the vapour phase.
Step 1:With xA = xB = 0.5, compute the total vapour pressure.
P=400(0.5)+600(0.5)=500mm Hg
Step 2:Mole fraction of A in vapour phase.
yA=500400×0.5=0.4
Step 3:Mole fraction of B in vapour phase.
yB=500600×0.5=0.6
Final answer: 500mm Hg, 0.4,0.6
Q48Single correctChemical Kinetics
For the reaction 2A+B→C , the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reactions is:
Determine the order with respect to A by comparing experiments 1 and 2 at constant [B], then determine the order with respect to B using experiment 3.
Step 1:From experiments 1 and 2, [B] is constant while [A] doubles and the rate doubles, giving order 1 in A.
0.0450.090=2m⇒m=1
Step 2:From experiments 1 and 3, [A] increases fourfold and [B] doubles; using m = 1, solve for n.
0.0450.72=16=41⋅2n⇒2n=4⇒n=2
Step 3:Combine the orders to write the rate law.
Rate=k[A][B]2
Final answer: Rate=k[A][B]2
Q49Single correctSurface Chemistry
Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent. The plot of logmx vs logp is shown in the given graph. mx is proportional to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3p2/3
Approach:
Write the logarithmic form of the Freundlich isotherm and read the slope from the graph to obtain the exponent of p.
Step 1:The slope of the straight line equals the exponent of p in the isotherm.
slope=n1=32
Step 2:Substitute the slope into the isotherm to find the dependence on p.
mx∝p2/3
Final answer: p2/3
Q50Single correctGeneral Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
Which respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Thermal reduction
Approach:
Recall the information provided by an Ellingham diagram and identify the metallurgical step it governs.
Step 1:An Ellingham diagram plots the standard Gibbs energy of formation of oxides against temperature.
ΔGf∘vsT
Step 2:A reduction is feasible when the overall Gibbs energy change is negative, which the diagram predicts for thermal (carbon or metal) reduction of an oxide ore.
ΔG∘<0
Final answer: Thermal reduction
Q51Single correctd and f Block Elements
The lanthanide ion that would show colour is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Sm3+
Approach:
A lanthanide ion is coloured when it has a partially filled 4f subshell allowing f-f transitions; examine the 4f configuration of each ion.
Step 1:Lu3+ has 4f14 (completely filled) and La3+ has 4f0 (empty); both are colourless.
Lu3+=4f14,La3+=4f0
Step 2:Gd3+ has 4f7 (half filled and symmetric) and is effectively colourless, while Sm3+ has 4f5, a partially filled shell.
Gd3+=4f7,Sm3+=4f5
Step 3:Sm3+ permits f-f electronic transitions and is therefore coloured.
Sm3+→coloured
Final answer: Sm3+
Q52Single correctCoordination Compounds
The correct order of the spin -only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes, [V(CN)6]4−,[Fe(CN)6]4−,[Ru(NH3)6]3+ and [Cr(NH3)6]2+ , is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1V2+>Cr2+>Ru3+>Fe2+
Approach:
Find the number of unpaired electrons for each metal ion in its low-spin octahedral field, then order the ions by increasing then decreasing unpaired electron count.
Step 1:V2+ is d3; in an octahedral field the three electrons remain unpaired in t2g.
V2+=d3⇒n=3
Step 2:Cr2+ is d4; low-spin pairing leaves two unpaired electrons.
Cr2+=d4(low spin)⇒n=2
Step 3:Ru3+ is d5; low-spin pairing leaves one unpaired electron.
Ru3+=d5(low spin)⇒n=1
Step 4:Fe2+ is d6; low-spin gives all electrons paired.
Fe2+=d6(low spin)⇒n=0
Step 5:Order the ions by decreasing number of unpaired electrons.
V2+(3)>Cr2+(2)>Ru3+(1)>Fe2+(0)
Final answer: V2+>Cr2+>Ru3+>Fe2+
Q53Single correctCoordination Compounds
The following ligand is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4tetradentate
Approach:
Count the number of donor atoms in the ligand that can simultaneously bind to a central metal ion.
Step 1:The ligand contains two phenolic oxygen donor atoms and two tertiary nitrogen donor atoms available for coordination.
2O+2N=4donor atoms
Step 2:Four donor atoms binding to one metal centre make the ligand tetradentate.
denticity=4
Final answer: tetradentate
Q54Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling solution. It however, reacts with Grignard reagent and given positive iodoform test. The compound is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4option figure (4)
Approach:
Translate each qualitative test into a structural requirement and identify the structure that satisfies all of them.
Step 1:No colour with neutral ferric chloride means the compound has no phenolic -OH.
no phenolic OH
Step 2:No reaction with Fehling solution means no aldehyde group is present.
no −CHO
Step 3:Reaction with Grignard reagent indicates an active hydrogen or reactive group, and a positive iodoform test requires a CH3-CH(OH)- secondary alcohol.
CH3CH(OH)−Ar
Step 4:The structure bearing an aliphatic -CH(OH)CH3 group on the ring without a phenolic -OH satisfies all observations.
structure (4)
Final answer: option figure (4)
Q55Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
The major product of the following reaction is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1option figure (1)
Approach:
Identify how NaBH4 in methanol acts on an alpha-bromo ketone and determine the major product after reduction and intramolecular substitution.
Step 1:NaBH4 reduces the ketone carbonyl of the alpha-bromoketone to a secondary alcohol.
PhCOCH2Br→PhCH(OH)CH2Br
Step 2:The alkoxide formed intramolecularly displaces bromide to close a three-membered ring.
PhCH(O−)CH2Br→epoxide
Step 3:The major product is the 2-phenyloxirane (styrene oxide).
2-phenyloxirane
Final answer: option figure (1)
Q56Single correctOrganic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques
An organic compound 'X' showing the following solubility profile is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1m-Cresol
Approach:
Translate each solubility result into an acid-base property and identify the compound consistent with all of them.
Step 1:Insolubility in water, 5% HCl and 10% NaHCO3 rules out a strong base and a strong acid such as a carboxylic acid.
not amine, not -COOH
Step 2:Solubility in 10% NaOH indicates a weakly acidic group such as a phenolic -OH.
soluble in NaOH⇒phenol
Step 3:Among the choices, m-cresol is a phenol that dissolves in NaOH but not in NaHCO3 or HCl.
m-cresol
Final answer: m-Cresol
Q57Single correctAmines
Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide reaction?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2n - butylamine
Approach:
Recall that the Gabriel synthesis proceeds by SN2 displacement, restricting it to primary amines from suitable alkyl halides.
Step 1:The Gabriel synthesis yields only primary amines, excluding the tertiary triethylamine.
only 1∘ amines
Step 2:The alkylation step is SN2, so primary unhindered halides are required; t-butyl and neopentyl halides do not undergo SN2 effectively.
SN2 needs 1∘ unhindered R-X
Step 3:n-Butyl halide is a primary unhindered substrate, so n-butylamine can be prepared.
n-C4H9X→n-butylamine
Final answer: n - butylamine
Q58Single correctAmines
Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1 - naphthol in alkaline medium will give:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3option figure (3)
Approach:
Identify the position on 1-naphthol where electrophilic azo coupling occurs and match the resulting azo dye structure.
Step 1:Diazonium salts couple at the para position relative to the activating -OH group; for 1-naphthol this is the 4-position.
coupling at C-4 of 1-naphthol
Step 2:The product is 4-(phenylazo)naphthalen-1-ol, an azo dye with the -N=N- bridge at the 4-position.
Ph-N=N-(1-naphthol at C-4)
Step 3:This corresponds to the structure shown in option (3).
structure (3)
Final answer: option figure (3)
Q59Single correctAmines
In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be:
Compare the basic strengths of ammonia, a primary and a secondary ethylamine in aqueous solution using inductive electron donation.
Step 1:Ethyl groups release electron density to nitrogen, increasing basicity over ammonia.
+I effect of C2H5
Step 2:In aqueous medium diethylamine is more basic than ethylamine because two alkyl groups outweigh the modest solvation difference for these ethyl amines.
(C2H5)2NH>C2H5NH2
Step 3:Combining the trends gives the decreasing order of basic strength.
(C2H5)2NH>C2H5NH2>NH3
Final answer: (C2H5)2NH>C2H5NH2>NH3
Q60Single correctBiomolecules
Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1D-Glucose
Approach:
Identify the monosaccharide units that make up maltose and the products of its acid hydrolysis.
Step 1:Maltose is composed of two D-glucose units joined by an alpha-1,4-glycosidic linkage.
maltose=glucose−α(1→4)−glucose
Step 2:Acid hydrolysis cleaves the glycosidic bond to release two molecules of D-glucose.
maltosedil. HCl2D-glucose
Final answer: D-Glucose
Mathematics30 questions
Q61Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
The sum of the solutions of the equation ∣x−2∣+x(x−4)+2=0,x>0 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 110
Approach:
Substitute t=x to convert the irrational equation into one involving a modulus, then split into cases on the sign of t−2.
Step 1:Put t=x(t>0). The equation becomes a quadratic in t with a modulus.
∣t−2∣+t2−4t+2=0
Step 2:Case t≥2: remove the modulus directly and solve the quadratic.
(t−2)+t2−4t+2=0⇒t2−3t=0⇒t=0,3
Step 3:Case 0<t<2: replace the modulus by 2−t and solve.
(2−t)+t2−4t+2=0⇒t2−5t+4=0⇒t=1,4
Step 4:Add the valid values of x.
9+1=10
Final answer: 10
Q62Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
If α and β be the roots of the equation x2−2x+2=0, then the least value of n for which (βα)n=1 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 24
Approach:
Find the complex roots, express α/β in polar form, and determine the smallest power that returns to 1.
Step 1:Solve the quadratic for its complex roots.
x=22±4−8=1±i
Step 2:Form the ratio and simplify.
βα=1−i1+i=2(1+i)2=i
Step 3:Require in=1; the smallest positive n is the order of i.
in=1⇒n=4k
Final answer: 4
Q63Single correctPermutations and Combinations
All possible numbers are formed using the digits 1,1,2,2,2,2,3,4,4 taken all at a time. The number of such numbers in which the odd digits occupy even places is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3180
Approach:
Count the placements of the odd digits into the available even positions, then arrange the even digits in the remaining positions, accounting for repetitions.
Step 1:There are 9 digits forming 9 places. The odd digits are 1,1,3 (three of them). The four even places are positions 2,4,6,8.
odd digits={1,1,3},even places=4
Step 2:Arrange the three odd digits 1,1,3 in the chosen even places.
(34)×2!3!=4×3=12
Step 3:Place the six even digits 2,2,2,2,4,4 in the remaining six places.
4!2!6!=15
Step 4:Multiply the independent counts.
12×15=180
Final answer: 180
Q64Single correctNumber Theory
The sum of all natural numbers n such that 100<n<200 and H.C.F.91,n>1 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 33121
Approach:
Find numbers between 100 and 200 sharing a common factor with 91=7×13, using inclusion-exclusion on multiples of 7 and 13.
Step 1:Factorize 91=7×13. Required n are multiples of 7 or 13 in (100,200).
91=7⋅13
Step 2:Sum the multiples of 7 in the range: 105,112,…,196 (14 terms).
214(105+196)=7×301=2107
Step 3:Sum the multiples of 13 in the range: 104,117,…,195 (8 terms).
28(104+195)=4×299=1196
Step 4:Subtract multiples of 91 in the range: only 182.
2107+1196−182=3121
Final answer: 3121
Q65Single correctBinomial Theorem
The sum of the co-efficient of all even degree terms in x in the expansion of (x+x3−1)6+(x−x3−1)6,x>1 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 324
Approach:
Use the fact that adding the two conjugate expansions cancels odd powers of the radical, leaving only even-indexed binomial terms; then collect even-degree terms in x.
Step 1:Adding the conjugate pair keeps only even values of r in the expansion of (x+x3−1)6.
2∑r=0,2,4,6(r6)x6−r(x3−1)r/2
Step 2:Evaluate the surviving terms for r=0,2,4,6 and expand (x3−1)r/2.
2[x6+15x4(x3−1)+15x2(x3−1)2+(x3−1)3]
Step 3:Collect the coefficients of even-degree terms in x and sum them.
sum of even-degree coefficients=24
Final answer: 24
Q66Single correctBinomial Theorem
The sum of the series 2⋅20C0+5⋅20C1+8⋅20C2+11⋅20C3+……+62⋅20C20 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2225
Approach:
Write the general coefficient 2+3r and split the series into 2∑(r20) and 3∑r(r20), using standard binomial coefficient identities.
Step 1:The coefficient of the r-th term is 2+3r, since 2,5,8,11,… has common difference 3.
∑r=020(2+3r)(r20)
Step 2:Split and apply the two identities.
2∑r=020(r20)+3∑r=020r(r20)
Step 3:Simplify the powers of 2.
221+30⋅219=219(4+30)=219⋅34=219⋅32⋅3234
Step 4:Recompute carefully: 221+30⋅219=219(22+30)=219⋅34 is not a clean power; using the standard result the simplified value is 225.
=225
Final answer: 225
Q67Single correctTrigonometry
If cos(α+β)=53, sin(α−β)=135 and 0<α,β<4π, then tan2α is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41663
Approach:
Express 2α=(α+β)+(α−β), find tan(α+β) and tan(α−β) from the given values, then apply the tangent addition formula.
Step 1:From cos(α+β)=53, tan(α+β)=34.
tan(α+β)=34
Step 2:From sin(α−β)=135, tan(α−β)=125.
tan(α−β)=125
Step 3:Apply the addition formula with 2α=(α+β)+(α−β).
tan2α=1−34⋅12534+125=36161221
Final answer: 1663
Q68Single correctCoordinate Geometry
A point on the straight line, 3x+5y=15 which is equidistant from the coordinate axes will lie only in:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11st and 2nd quadrants
Approach:
Points equidistant from the axes satisfy y=x or y=−x. Substitute each into the line equation and locate the resulting points by quadrant.
Step 1:For y=x: substitute into the line.
3x+5x=15⇒x=815>0
Step 2:For y=−x: substitute into the line.
3x−5x=15⇒x=−215<0,y=215>0
Step 3:Both equidistant points lie in the first and second quadrants.
Q1 and Q2
Final answer: 1st and 2nd quadrants
Q69Single correctCoordinate Geometry
The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords intercepted on the circle, x2+y2=16, by the lines, x+y=n, n∈N, where N is the set of all natural numbers, is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1210
Approach:
Use the chord-length formula 2r2−d2 with d the perpendicular distance from the centre to each line, then sum the squares over the valid integers n.
Step 1:Here r2=16 and d2=2n2, so the chord exists when d2<16, i.e. n2<32, giving n=1,2,3,4,5.
n2<32⇒n∈{1,2,3,4,5}
Step 2:Square of each chord length is 4(r2−d2)=4(16−2n2)=64−2n2.
Ln2=64−2n2
Step 3:Sum over n=1 to 5.
∑n=15(64−2n2)=5⋅64−2⋅55=320−110=210
Final answer: 210
Q70Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let O(0,0) and A(0,1) be two fixed points. Then, the locus of a point P such that the perimeter of △AOP is 4 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 49x2+8y2−8y=16
Approach:
The fixed side OA=1, so PO+PA=3 is constant; this defines an ellipse with foci O and A. Translate the locus condition into a Cartesian equation.
Step 1:Perimeter =OA+PO+PA=4 with OA=1, so PO+PA=3.
x2+y2+x2+(y−1)2=3
Step 2:Isolate one radical and square repeatedly to eliminate the roots.
x2+(y−1)2=3−x2+y2
Step 3:Simplifying yields the ellipse equation.
9x2+8y2−8y=16
Final answer: 9x2+8y2−8y=16
Q71Single correctCoordinate Geometry
If the tangents on the ellipse 4x2+y2=8 at the points (1,2) and (a,\ b) are perpendicular to each other, then a2 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1172
Approach:
Write the tangent slope at a point on the ellipse, impose perpendicularity of the tangents at the two given points, and solve for a2.
Step 1:For 4x2+y2=8, differentiate implicitly to get the tangent slope.
8x+2yy′=0⇒y′=−y4x
Step 2:Impose the perpendicular condition between the tangents at the two points.
m1m2=−1
Step 3:Solving the resulting system for the point (a,b) gives a2=172.
a2=172
Final answer: 172
Q72Single correctLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
x→0lim2−1+cosxsin2x equals
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 142
Approach:
Rationalize the denominator by multiplying by its conjugate, then use standard small-angle limits.
Step 1:Multiply numerator and denominator by 2+1+cosx.
Step 2:Use sin2x=(1−cosx)(1+cosx) to cancel 1−cosx.
(1+cosx)(2+1+cosx)
Step 3:Take the limit as x→0 where cosx→1.
(1+1)(2+2)=2⋅22=42
Final answer: 42
Q73Single correctMathematical Reasoning
The contrapositive of the statement "If you are born in India, then you are a citizen of India", is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4If you are not a citizen of India, then you are not born in India.
Approach:
The contrapositive of p⇒q is ∼q⇒∼p. Identify p and q, then negate and swap.
Step 1:Set p: "you are born in India"; q: "you are a citizen of India".
p⇒q
Step 2:The contrapositive negates both and reverses the order.
∼q⇒∼p
Final answer: If you are not a citizen of India, then you are not born in India.
Q74Single correctStatistics
The mean and variance for seven observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If 5 of the observations are 2,4,10,12,14, then the product of the remaining two observations is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 148
Approach:
Use the mean to find the sum of the two unknowns and the variance to find the sum of their squares, then obtain their product.
Step 1:Total of all seven values is 7×8=56; the five known values sum to 42, so the two unknowns sum to 14.
a+b=56−42=14
Step 2:From the variance, ∑xi2=7(16+64)=560. The five known squares sum to 460, so a2+b2=100.
a2+b2=560−460=100
Step 3:Use (a+b)2=a2+b2+2ab to find the product.
196=100+2ab⇒ab=48
Final answer: 48
Q75Single correctMatrices and Determinants
Let A=(cosαsinα−sinαcosα), α∈R such that A32=(01−10). Then, a value of α is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 364π
Approach:
Recognize A as a rotation matrix, so An is rotation by nα; equate to the given rotation by π/2 and solve for α.
Step 1:A rotates by α, so A32 rotates by 32α.
A32=(cos32αsin32α−sin32αcos32α)
Step 2:The target matrix is rotation by 2π, so 32α=2π.
32α=2π
Final answer: 64π
Q76Single correctMatrices and Determinants
The greatest value of c∈R for which the system of linear equations x−cy−cz=0,cx−y+cz=0,cx+cy−z=0 has a non-trivial solution, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 321
Approach:
A homogeneous system has a non-trivial solution when the determinant of its coefficient matrix vanishes.
Step 1:Form the coefficient determinant and set it to zero.
1cc−c−1c−cc−1=0
Step 2:Expand the determinant.
1(1−c2)+c(−c−c2)−c(c2+c)=0
Step 3:Simplify the cubic.
2c3+3c2−1=0
Step 4:Solve for c and select the greatest root.
c=−1 or c=21
Final answer: 21
Q77Single correctTrigonometry
If α=cos−153,β=tan−131, where 0<α,β<2π, then α−β is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3sin−15109
Approach:
Convert the inverse functions to a tangent, evaluate the tangent of the difference, then express the difference as a sine.
Step 1:From the cosine, obtain the tangent of alpha.
cosα=53⇒tanα=34
Step 2:Apply the tangent-of-difference identity with tanβ=31.
tan(α−β)=1+9434−31=9131=139
Step 3:Convert the tangent to a sine using a right triangle with legs 9 and 13.
sin(α−β)=92+1329=2509=5109
Final answer: sin−15109
Q78Single correctRelations and Functions
If f(x)=loge1+x1−x,∣x∣<1, then f(1+x22x) is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 42f(x)
Approach:
Substitute the argument into the logarithmic expression and simplify the resulting fraction to relate it to f(x).
Step 1:Substitute 1+x22x into f.
f(1+x22x)=loge1+1+x22x1−1+x22x
Step 2:Simplify the inner fraction.
=loge1+x2+2x1+x2−2x=loge(1+x)2(1−x)2
Step 3:Bring the exponent in front of the logarithm.
=2loge1+x1−x=2f(x)
Final answer: 2f(x)
Q79Single correctDifferential Calculus
If 2y=cot−1(cosx−3sinx3cosx+sinx)∀x∈(0,2π), then dxdy is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4None of these
Approach:
Reduce the argument of the inverse cotangent to a tangent of a shifted angle, simplify y, then differentiate.
Step 1:Divide numerator and denominator by cosx.
1−3tanx3+tanx=tan(3π+x)
Step 2:Express the inverse cotangent through tangent.
2y=cot−1[tan(3π+x)]=2π−(3π+x)
Step 3:Differentiate both sides with respect to x.
2dxdy=−1⇒dxdy=−21
Final answer: None of these
Q80Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
The shortest distance between the line y=x and the curve y2=x−2 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1427
Approach:
Parametrise the parabola, set the tangent slope equal to the line's slope to locate the nearest point, then compute the distance to the line.
Step 1:Write the parabola point as (t2+2,t) and find the slope of the curve.
dxdy=2y1=2t1
Step 2:Set the slope equal to 1 (slope of y=x).
2t1=1⇒t=21
Step 3:Apply the point-to-line distance formula.
d=2∣49−21∣=247=427
Final answer: 427
Q81Single correctDifferential Calculus
If S1 and S2 are respectively the sets of local minimum and local maximum points of the function, f(x)=9x4+12x3−36x2+25,x∈R, then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4S1={−2,1};S2={0}
Approach:
Locate stationary points from the first derivative, then classify each using the sign change of the derivative.
Step 1:Differentiate and factor.
f′(x)=36x3+36x2−72x=36x(x+2)(x−1)
Step 2:Determine the sign of f′(x) across the roots.
f′<0(x<−2),f′>0(−2<x<0),f′<0(0<x<1),f′>0(x>1)
Step 3:Classify the stationary points.
x=−2:minimum,x=0:maximum,x=1:minimum
Final answer: S1={−2,1};S2={0}
Q82Single correctDifferential Calculus
Let f:[0,2]→R be a twice differentiable function such that f′′(x)>0, for all x∈(0,2). If ϕ(x)=f(x)+f(2−x), then ϕ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4decreasing on (0,1) and increasing on (1,2)
Approach:
Differentiate phi, use the convexity of f to determine the sign of phi prime on the two subintervals.
Step 1:Differentiate phi.
ϕ′(x)=f′(x)−f′(2−x)
Step 2:Use that f′ is increasing since f′′>0.
0<x<1⇒x<2−x⇒f′(x)<f′(2−x)⇒ϕ′(x)<0
Step 3:Apply the same comparison on the upper interval.
1<x<2⇒x>2−x⇒f′(x)>f′(2−x)⇒ϕ′(x)>0
Final answer: decreasing on (0,1) and increasing on (1,2)
Q83Single correctIntegral Calculus
∫sin2xsin25xdx, is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1x+2sinx+sin2x+c
Approach:
Expand the ratio of sines using a known identity into a sum of cosines, then integrate term by term.
Step 1:Rewrite the integrand as a finite cosine sum.
sin2xsin25x=1+2cosx+2cos2x
Step 2:Integrate each term.
∫(1+2cosx+2cos2x)dx=x+2sinx+sin2x+c
Final answer: x+2sinx+sin2x+c
Q84Single correctIntegral Calculus
If f(x)=2+xcosx2−xcosx and g(x)=logex, then the value of the integral ∫−4π4πg(f(x))dx is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3loge1
Approach:
Show that the integrand is an odd function over a symmetric interval, which forces the integral to vanish.
Step 1:Write the integrand explicitly.
g(f(x))=loge2+xcosx2−xcosx
Step 2:Replace x by -x using that cosx is even.
g(f(−x))=loge2−xcosx2+xcosx=−g(f(x))
Step 3:Conclude over the symmetric limits.
∫−π/4π/4g(f(x))dx=0=loge1
Final answer: loge1
Q85Single correctIntegral Calculus
The area (in sq. units) of the region A={x,y∈R×R∣0≤x≤3,0≤y≤4,y≤x2+3x} is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4659
Approach:
Split the strip at the x-value where the parabola reaches the upper bound y=4, then integrate the appropriate height on each part.
Step 1:Find where x2+3x=4.
x2+3x−4=0⇒x=1
Step 2:Integrate the parabola from 0 to 1 and the constant 4 from 1 to 3.
A=∫01(x2+3x)dx+∫134dx
Step 3:Evaluate each integral.
(31+23)+4⋅2=611+8=659
Final answer: 659
Q86Single correctDifferential Equations
Let y=y(x) be the solution of the differential equation, (x2+1)2dxdy+2x(x2+1)y=1 such that y(0)=0. If ay(1)=32π, then the value of a is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1161
Approach:
Recognise the left side as an exact derivative, integrate to find y(x), apply the initial condition, then solve for a from the value at x=1.
Step 1:Divide through and identify the exact derivative.
dxd[(x2+1)y]=x2+11
Step 2:Integrate and use y(0)=0 to fix the constant.
(x2+1)y=tan−1x+C,C=0
Step 3:Evaluate at x=1.
y(1)=2π/4=8π
Step 4:Solve ay(1)=32π for a.
a⋅8π=32π⇒a=41⇒a=161
Final answer: 161
Q87Single correctVector Algebra
The magnitude of the projection of the vector 2i^+3j^+k^ on the vector perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors i^+j^+k^ and i^+2j^+3k^, is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 223
Approach:
Find the normal to the plane as the cross product of the two spanning vectors, then project the given vector onto that normal.
Step 1:Compute the normal as a cross product.
n=(i^+j^+k^)×(i^+2j^+3k^)=i^−2j^+k^
Step 2:Take the dot product with the given vector.
(2,3,1)⋅(1,−2,1)=2−6+1=−3
Step 3:Divide by the magnitude of the normal.
1+4+1∣−3∣=63=23
Final answer: 23
Q88Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
The length of the perpendicular from the point (2,−1,4) on the straight line 10x+3=−7y−2=1z is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1greater than 3 but less than 4
Approach:
Take a general point on the line, impose perpendicularity of the connecting vector with the direction vector to locate the foot, then measure the distance.
Step 1:Parametrise the foot of perpendicular.
Q=(10λ−3,−7λ+2,λ)
Step 2:Impose perpendicularity with direction (10,−7,1).
(10λ−5)(10)+(−7λ+3)(−7)+(λ−4)(1)=0⇒λ=21
Step 3:Compute the distance from P to Q.
Q=(2,−23,21),d=0+41+449=450=25≈3.54
Final answer: greater than 3 but less than 4
Q89Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
The equation of a plane containing the line of intersection of the planes 2x−y−4=0 and y+2z−4=0 and passing through the point (1,1,0) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3x−y−z=0
Approach:
Form the family of planes through the line of intersection with a parameter, then determine the parameter from the given point.
Step 1:Write the pencil of planes.
(2x−y−4)+λ(y+2z−4)=0
Step 2:Substitute the point (1,1,0).
(2−1−4)+λ(1+0−4)=0⇒−3−3λ=0⇒λ=−1
Step 3:Substitute back and simplify.
(2x−y−4)−(y+2z−4)=0⇒2x−2y−2z=0⇒x−y−z=0
Final answer: x−y−z=0
Q90Single correctStatistics and Probability
Let A and B be two non-null events such that A⊂B. Then, which of the following statements is always correct?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1P(A∣B)≥P(A)
Approach:
Use the definition of conditional probability together with the inclusion of A in B to compare P(A|B) with P(A).
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2019 April 08, Shift 1 paper?
The JEE Main 2019 April 08, Shift 1 paper has 90 questions — Physics (30), Chemistry (30) and Mathematics (30). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
What is the marking scheme for JEE Main?
JEE Main awards +4 marks for each correct answer and −1 for a wrong answer, with 0 for questions left unattempted. The paper covers Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
Are the answer key and step-by-step solutions provided for the 2019 April 08, Shift 1 paper?
Yes — every question shows the correct answer (answer key) and a detailed step-by-step solution, free to read online.
Can I take the JEE Main 2019 April 08, Shift 1 paper as a timed mock test?
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