JEE Main 2026 April 02, Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions
All 75 questions from the JEE Main 2026 (April 02, Shift 2) shift — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (25) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
Dimensions of universal gravitational constant (G) in terms of Planck's constant (h), distance (L), mass (M) and time (T) are ___________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2[hT−1LM−2]
Approach:
Assume G is proportional to h multiplied by unknown powers of L, M, T, then equate the dimensions on both sides.
Step 1:Given fundamental quantities h, L, M, T as the basis; target is to write [G] in this basis. Known: [G]=M−1L3T−2 and [h]=ML2T−1.
G=hLxMyTz
Step 2:Substitute the dimensional expressions for G and h into the ansatz.
M−1L3T−2=(ML2T−1)⋅LxMyTz
Step 3:Combine the powers on the right-hand side.
M−1L3T−2=M1+yL2+xT−1+z
Step 4:Equate exponents of M, L, and T separately.
1+y=−1,2+x=3,−1+z=−2
Step 5:Reconstruct [G] from h⋅L1M−2T−1 and check it reduces to M−1L3T−2.
(ML2T−1)⋅(LM−2T−1)=M1−2L2+1T−1−1=M−1L3T−2
Step 6:Write the final dimensional form of G.
[G]=[hT−1LM−2]
Final answer: [G]=[hT−1LM−2]
Q27Single correctLaws of Motion
A 0.5 kg mass is in contact against the inner wall of a cylindrical drum of 4 m rotating about its vertical axis. The minimum rotational speed of the drum to enable the mass to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) is 5rad/s. The coefficient of friction between the drum's inner wall surface and mass is ________ (Take g=10m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 10.1
Approach:
At the minimum spin rate, limiting friction equals weight while the wall's normal reaction supplies the centripetal force.
Step 2:For the mass to be on the verge of slipping downward, friction up the wall balances weight.
μN=mg
Step 3:The horizontal normal force is the centripetal force.
N=mrω2
Step 4:Combine the two equations to eliminate N.
μ(mrω2)=mg⇒μ=rω2g
Step 5:Substitute numerical values.
μ=4m⋅(5rad/s)210m/s2=4⋅2510=10010
Step 6:Compute N=0.5⋅4⋅25=50N and check μN=0.1⋅50=5N equals mg=0.5⋅10=5N.
μN=5N=mg
Step 7:Friction coefficient between mass and inner wall.
μ=0.1
Final answer: μ=0.1
Q28Single correctLaws of Motion
Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are tied to the ends of a string which passes over a light frictionless pulley as shown in the figure below. The masses are hold at rest at the same horizontal level and then released. The distance traversed by the centre of mass in 2 s is _______ m.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32.22
Approach:
Find Atwood acceleration of each block, derive the centre-of-mass acceleration, then apply uniformly-accelerated motion from rest for 2 s.
Step 1:Given m2=2kg (heavier, descends), m1=1kg (lighter, rises), g=10m/s2, time t=2s, both released from rest. Target: distance traversed by the centre of mass.
m1=1kg,m2=2kg,g=10m/s2,t=2s
Step 2:Apply Atwood's formula for the common magnitude of acceleration of each block.
a=(2+12−1)g=3g=310m/s2
Step 3:Take downward as positive. Heavier block accelerates down with +a, lighter block accelerates up with −a. Substitute into the centre-of-mass formula.
acm=m1+m2m2(+a)+m1(−a)=m1+m2(m2−m1)a
Step 4:Substitute a=(m2−m1)g/(m1+m2) to get acm in terms of g and the masses.
acm=(m1+m2m2−m1)2g=(31)2⋅10=910m/s2
Step 5:Apply S=21acmt2 for motion from rest over t=2s.
S=21⋅910⋅(2)2=21⋅910⋅4=920m
Step 6:Units check m/s2⋅s2=m; numerical value 20/9=2.222… matches option (3).
920=2.222m
Step 7:Centre-of-mass displacement in 2 s.
S≈2.22m
Final answer: S≈2.22m
Q29Single correctMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
A particle having charge 10−9C moving in x-y plane in fields of 0.4j^N/C and 4×10−3k^T experiences a force of (4i^+2j^)×10−10N. The velocity of the particle at that instant is ______ m/s.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 150i^+100j^
Approach:
Write the Lorentz force with an unknown velocity V=xi^+yj^, expand the cross product V×B, and match components of the resulting force to find x and y.
Step 1:Given q=10−9C, E=0.4j^N/C, B=4×10−3k^T, F=(4i^+2j^)×10−10N. Target: V in the x-y plane.
V=xi^+yj^
Step 2:Compute the magnetic force per unit charge V×B.
V×B=(xi^+yj^)×(4×10−3k^)=4×10−3yi^−4×10−3xj^
Step 3:Form the total Lorentz force expression.
F=q[0.4j^+4×10−3yi^−4×10−3xj^]
Step 4:Divide the supplied F by q=10−9C to obtain force per charge.
qF=10−9(4i^+2j^)×10−10=0.4i^+0.2j^N/C
Step 5:Equate the i^ components: 0.4=4×10−3y.
y=4×10−30.4=100m/s
Step 6:Equate the j^ components: 0.2=0.4−4×10−3x.
4×10−3x=0.4−0.2=0.2⇒x=50m/s
Step 7:Substitute x=50,y=100 back. q(V×B)=10−9(4×10−3⋅100i^−4×10−3⋅50j^)=(4i^−2j^)×10−10N. Add qE=(4j^)×10−10N to obtain F=(4i^+2j^)×10−10N.
Fcheck=(4i^+2j^)×10−10N
Step 8:Assemble velocity vector.
V=50i^+100j^m/s
Final answer: V=50i^+100j^m/s
Q30Single correctElectronic Devices
If X and Y are the inputs, the given circuit works as ________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4NOR gate
Approach:
Trace the output of each NAND stage with Boolean algebra and De Morgan's theorem to collapse the network into a single equivalent gate.
Step 1:Inputs are X and Y. Circuit: NAND(X,X) feeds first node, NAND(Y,Y) feeds second node, both outputs feed a NAND, whose output passes through a final NAND tied-input stage to give Output.
Inputs: X,Y;Output=?
Step 2:First two NAND gates have their two inputs tied, so each acts as an inverter.
X⋅X=Xˉ,Y⋅Y=Yˉ
Step 3:Third NAND takes Xˉ and Yˉ.
Z1=Xˉ⋅Yˉ
Step 4:Apply De Morgan's theorem to Z1.
Z1=Xˉ⋅Yˉ=X+Y
Step 5:Final NAND has its two inputs both equal to Z1, acting as an inverter.
Output=Z1⋅Z1=Z1=X+Y
Step 6:Build the truth table. For (X,Y)=(0,0) output =1; (0,1) output =0; (1,0) output =0; (1,1) output =0. This matches a NOR gate exactly.
Output(X,Y)=X+Y
Step 7:The combinational network is logically equivalent to a NOR gate.
Equivalent gate=NOR
Final answer: The circuit is equivalent to a NOR gate.
Q31Single correctGravitation
If a body of mass 1 kg falls on the earth from infinity, it attains velocity (v) and kinetic energy (k) on reaching the surface of earth. The values of v and k respectively are _____ (Take radius of earth to be 6400 km and g=9.8m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 111.2km/s;6.27×107J
Approach:
Apply energy conservation between infinity (where both PE and KE vanish) and the earth's surface. The resulting speed is the escape speed.
Step 1:Given m=1kg, R=6400km=6.4×106m, g=9.8m/s2; initial state at infinity (PE∞=0, KE∞=0). Target: speed v and kinetic energy k at the surface.
m=1kg,R=6.4×106m,g=9.8m/s2
Step 2:Total mechanical energy is conserved between ∞ and the surface.
0=−RGMm+21mv2
Step 3:Replace GM/R with gR using surface gravity, then isolate kinetic energy.
k=21mv2=RGMm=mgR
Step 4:Compute the kinetic energy numerically.
k=(1kg)⋅(9.8m/s2)⋅(6.4×106m)=6.272×107J
Step 5:Solve k=21mv2 for v.
v=m2k=2gR=2⋅9.8⋅6.4×106
Step 6:Evaluate the square root.
v=1.2544×108m/s=1.12×104m/s=11.2km/s
Step 7:This matches the standard escape velocity of earth 2gR≈11.2km/s, and 21(1)(1.12×104)2=6.272×107J reproduces k.
21(1)(1.12×104)2=6.27×107J
Step 8:Speed and kinetic energy at the surface.
v=11.2km/s,k=6.27×107J
Final answer: v=11.2km/s,k=6.27×107J
Q32Single correctExperimental Skills
In a screw gauge the zero of main scale reference line coincides with the fifth division of the circular scale when two studs are in contact. There are 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch of screw gauge is 0.1 mm. When diameter of a sphere is measured, the reading of main scale is 5 mm and 50th division of circular scale coincides with the reference line of main scale. The diameter of sphere is __________ mm.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 15.045
Approach:
Compute least count, identify the sign of the zero error from the stud coincidence, and subtract it from the observed reading.
Step 1:Given pitch =0.1mm, CSD =100 divisions, observed MSR =5mm, CSR =50 divisions. Zero check: with studs in contact, the 5th circular division coincides with the main-scale reference line (zero of main scale lies above the reference, so circular scale is ahead). Target: corrected diameter.
pitch=0.1mm,Ncsd=100
Step 2:Compute the least count.
LC=1000.1mm=0.001mm
Step 3:Because the circular scale is 5 divisions ahead of zero when studs touch, the gauge reads +5×LC extra; this is a positive zero error.
Zero error=+5×0.001mm=+0.005mm
Step 4:Compute the observed (uncorrected) reading on the sphere.
Observed=5+50×0.001=5.050mm
Step 5:Subtract the positive zero error from the observed reading.
Diameter=5.050−0.005=5.045mm
Step 6:Add the zero error back: 5.045+0.005=5.050mm, which reproduces the observed reading.
5.045+0.005=5.050mm
Step 7:Diameter of the sphere.
D=5.045mm
Final answer: Diameter of sphere =5.045mm
Q33Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
The surface tension of a soap bubble is 0.03N/m. The work done in increasing the diameter of bubble from 2 cm to 6 cm is απ×10−4J. The value of α is ________. (Take π=3.14)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 31.92
Approach:
A soap bubble has two free surfaces. Work done equals surface tension times the increase in total surface area, W=2TΔA where ΔA=4π(r22−r12).
Step 1:Given T=0.03N/m, initial diameter d1=2cm, final diameter d2=6cm. Convert to radii in metres. Target: α where W=απ×10−4J.
r1=1cm=1×10−2m,r2=3cm=3×10−2m
Step 2:Write the work expression for a soap bubble, accounting for inner and outer surfaces.
Step 6:Units: N/m⋅m2=N⋅m=J. Matching the form W=απ×10−4J gives α=1.92.
[T][r2]=N/m⋅m2=J
Step 7:Value of α.
α=1.92
Final answer: α=1.92
Q34Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases
A mixture of carbon dioxide and oxygen has volume 8310cm3, temperature 300 K, pressure 100 kPa and mass 13.2 g. The number of moles of carbon dioxide and oxygen gases in the mixture respectively are ___________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 30.21 and 0.12
Approach:
Use the ideal gas equation for the mixture to obtain the total number of moles, then combine with the total-mass equation using the molar masses of CO2 and O2 to solve a 2x2 linear system.
Step 2:Substitute into ideal gas equation to obtain total moles.
n1+n2=RTPV=8.31×300105×8310×10−6=2493831=31
Step 3:Write mass-conservation equation with molar masses in g.
44n1+32n2=13.2
Step 4:Eliminate n2 using n2=0.3333−n1 and solve.
44n1+32(0.3333−n1)=13.2⇒12n1=13.2−10.667=2.533
Step 5:Obtain n2 from the total-moles equation.
n2=0.3333−0.2112=0.1221mol
Step 6:Back-substitute into the mass equation; total mass should equal 13.2 g.
44(0.2112)+32(0.1221)=9.293+3.907=13.20g
Step 7:The moles of CO2 and O2 are 0.21 and 0.12 respectively, matching option (3).
n(CO2)≈0.21,n(O2)≈0.12
Final answer: n(CO2)≈0.21mol,n(O2)≈0.12mol
Q35Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
If an air bubble of diameter 2 mm rises steadily through a liquid of density 200kg/m3 at a rate of 0.5cm/s, then the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is _______ Poise. (Take g=10m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 10.88
Approach:
Apply Stokes' law at the terminal (steady) state: the upward buoyant force on the air bubble is balanced by the downward viscous drag. Solve for the dynamic viscosity and convert to Poise.
Step 1:Diameter d=2mm⇒r=1mm=10−3m; ρliq=200kg/m3; vt=0.5cm/s=5×10−3m/s; g=10m/s2. Target: viscosity η in Poise.
r=10−3m,vt=5×10−3m/s
Step 2:At terminal velocity, neglecting the small weight of the air bubble, buoyancy equals viscous drag.
34πr3ρg=6πηrvt
Step 3:Solve algebraically for η.
η=9vt2ρr2g
Step 4:Substitute numerical values to compute η in SI units.
Step 7:The coefficient of viscosity is about 0.88 Poise, matching option (1).
η≈0.88Poise
Final answer: η≈0.88Poise
Q36Single correctWork, Energy and Power
A spherical ball of mass 2 kg falls from a height of 10 m and is brought to rest after penetrating 10 cm into sand. The average force exerted by sand on the ball is _______ N.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32000
Approach:
Use the work-energy theorem over the full motion (rest to rest): total work by gravity plus work by sand equals zero. With the penetration depth small compared to the height of fall, the average sand force follows directly.
Step 1:m=2kg, h=10m, x=10cm=0.10m, g=10m/s2. Target: average force F exerted by sand on the ball.
m=2kg,h=10m,x=0.10m
Step 2:Since the ball starts and ends at rest, ΔKE=0 and net work vanishes (approximate gravity drop as h because x≪h).
Step 5:The average force exerted by sand is 2000 N, matching option (3).
F=2000N
Final answer: F=2000N
Q37Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
An electromagnetic wave travels in free space in the x-direction. At a particular point in space and time, B=2×10−7j^ T is associated with this wave. The value of corresponding electric field E at this point is ________ V/m.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2−60k^
Approach:
In a plane EM wave the magnitudes are linked by ∣E∣=c∣B∣, and the direction of propagation c^ equals E^×B^. Use both relations to determine E.
Step 1:Propagation c^=i^, magnetic field B=2×10−7j^T, c=3×108m/s. Target: vector E.
c^=i^,B=2×10−7j^T
Step 2:Compute ∣E∣ from ∣E∣=c∣B∣.
∣E∣=(3×108)(2×10−7)=60V/m
Step 3:E is perpendicular to B and lies in the ±k^ direction; choose the sign making E^×B^=i^. Test E^=−k^.
(−k^)×j^=−(k^×j^)=−(−i^)=i^
Step 4:Combine magnitude with direction.
E=−60k^V/m
Step 5:Poynting check E×B=(−60k^)×(2×10−7j^)=−120×10−7(k^×j^)=+120×10−7i^, i.e. along +i^, the propagation direction.
E×B∝+i^
Step 6:E=−60k^V/m, matching option (2).
E=−60k^V/m
Final answer: E=−60k^V/m
Q38Single correctCurrent Electricity
Two resistors of 200Ω and 400Ω are connected in series with a battery of 100 V. A bulb rated at 200 V, 100 W is connected across the 400Ω resistance. The potential drop across the bulb is ________ V.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 250
Approach:
Obtain the bulb's resistance from its rated voltage and power, combine it in parallel with the 400Ω resistor it is connected across, and use voltage division across the 200Ω series resistor and the parallel block.
Step 1:R1=200Ω (series), R2=400Ω (across which bulb is fitted), bulb rating Vb=200V, Pb=100W, source Vs=100V. Target: potential drop across the bulb.
Vs=100V,R1=200Ω,R2=400Ω
Step 2:Bulb resistance from rated values.
Rb=PbVb2=1002002=400Ω
Step 3:Bulb (400 Ω) is in parallel with 400 Ω resistor.
Rp=400+400400×400=200Ω
Step 4:Total circuit resistance across the 100 V source.
Rtot=R1+Rp=200+200=400Ω
Step 5:Voltage across the parallel block equals voltage across the bulb.
Vbulb=VsRtotRp=100×400200=50V
Step 6:Source current I=Vs/Rtot=100/400=0.25A; voltage across parallel block =IRp=0.25×200=50V, consistent.
IRp=0.25×200=50V
Step 7:The potential drop across the bulb is 50 V, matching option (2).
Vbulb=50V
Final answer: Vbulb=50V
Q39Single correctElectrostatics
Two metal plates (A, B) are kept horizontally with separation of (π12) cm, with plate A on the top. An atomizer jet sprays oil (density 1.5 g/cm3) droplets of radius 1 mm horizontally. All oil droplets carry a charge 5nC. The potentials VA and VB are required on plates A and B respectively in order to ensure the droplets do not descend. The values of VA and VB are ____ (Neglect the air resistance to the droplets and take g=10 m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1100 V and 580 V
Approach:
Balance the electric force on a positively charged droplet with gravity. For the upward electric force, the field must point downward, so the bottom plate B is held at higher potential than the top plate A. Compute the required VB−VA from the force-balance equation.
Step 1:q=5nC=5×10−9C, d=(12/π)cm=(12/π)×10−2m, R=1mm=10−3m, ρ=1.5g/cm3=1.5×103kg/m3, g=10m/s2. Target: VA and VB.
q,d,R,ρ,g as above
Step 2:Set the upward electric force on the positive charge equal to its weight.
qd(VB−VA)=34πR3ρg
Step 3:Substitute the numerical values into the equation.
5×10−9⋅12×10−2(VB−VA)π=34π(10−3)3⋅1.5×103⋅10
Step 4:Cancel π and simplify the right side.
12×10−25×10−9(VB−VA)=34×1.5×10−6×10=2×10−5
Step 5:Solve for the potential difference.
VB−VA=5×10−92×10−5×12×10−2=480V
Step 6:Scan the four options for one whose difference is 480 V with VB>VA. Option (1) gives VB−VA=580−100=480V.
VA=100V,VB=580V
Step 7:With VB−VA=480V and d=0.0382m, E=480/0.0382≈1.257×104V/m; weight mg=(4/3)π(10−3)3(1500)(10)=6.28×10−5N; electric force qE=5×10−9×1.257×104=6.28×10−5N, equal to the weight.
qE=mg=6.28×10−5N
Step 8:The required potentials are VA=100V and VB=580V, matching option (1).
VA=100V,VB=580V
Final answer: VA=100V,VB=580V
Q40Single correctElectrostatics
Two point charges 8μC and −2μC are located at x=2 cm and x=4 cm, respectively on the x-axis. The ratio of electric flux due to these charges through two spheres of radii 3 cm and 5 cm with their centers at the origin is __________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 34 : 3
Approach:
Apply Gauss's law: the net electric flux through any closed surface depends only on the algebraic sum of the charges enclosed by it. Determine which charges lie inside each sphere and take the ratio.
Step 1:Charges q1=+8μC at x=2cm and q2=−2μC at x=4cm. Sphere 1 has radius 3 cm centred at origin; sphere 2 has radius 5 cm centred at origin. Target: ϕ1:ϕ2.
q1,q2 positions and sphere radii as above
Step 2:For sphere 1 (r=3cm): ∣2∣<3 so q1 is enclosed; ∣4∣>3 so q2 is outside.
Qenc,1=+8μC
Step 3:For sphere 2 (r=5cm): both ∣2∣<5 and ∣4∣<5, so both charges are enclosed.
Qenc,2=8+(−2)=+6μC
Step 4:Write the two fluxes from Gauss's law.
ϕ1=ε08μC,ϕ2=ε06μC
Step 5:Take the ratio (the ε0 cancels).
ϕ2ϕ1=68=34
Step 6:Charges outside a closed surface contribute zero net flux, so only enclosed charges matter; the ratio uses only the enclosed totals and the ε0 factor cancels in the ratio.
ϕ1/ϕ2=Qenc,1/Qenc,2
Step 7:The ratio of fluxes is 4 : 3, matching option (3).
ϕ1:ϕ2=4:3
Final answer: ϕ1:ϕ2=4:3
Q41Single correctOptics
One side of an equilateral prism is painted by a transparent material of refractive index n2. The refractive index of prism is 1.6. The minimum value of n2 required for total internal reflection from painted face is ____________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 443/5
Approach:
From the equilateral-prism geometry, a ray entering the left face hits the painted base at 60∘. The threshold for total internal reflection is given by Snell's law at the critical angle with the refracted ray along the interface; solve for the minimum paint index n2.
Step 1:Prism index n1=1.6, prism angle A=60∘, internal angle of incidence on the painted base i=60∘ (from the geometry shown). Target: minimum n2 that just permits total internal reflection.
n1=1.6,i=60∘
Step 2:At the threshold (critical condition) Snell's law gives n1sini=n2sin90∘, i.e. the refracted ray would graze the painted surface.
1.6sin60∘=n2⋅1
Step 3:Substitute sin60∘=3/2.
n2=1.6×23=0.83
Step 4:Rewrite 0.83 in the form supplied by the options.
Step 6:The minimum paint refractive index is 43/5≈1.39, matching option (4). For total internal reflection at this interface the paint index must be at least this value.
n2=43/5
Final answer: n2=543≈1.39
Q42Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
The figure given below shows an LCR series circuit with two switches S1 and S2. When switch S1 is closed keeping S2 open, the phase difference (ϕ) between the current and source voltage is 30∘ and phase difference is 60∘ when S2 is closed keeping S1 open. The value of (3L1−L2) is ___________ H.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 292
Approach:
Write the series LCR phase equation tanϕ=(XL−XC)/R for each switch configuration, take the ratio to eliminate R, and use ω=300 rad/s with C=100μF to evaluate 1/(ω2C).
Step 1:Source ω=300 rad/s, C=100μF=10−4 F; phases 30∘ (first config) and 60∘ (second config); target (3L1−L2) in henry.
ω=300rad/s,C=10−4F
Step 2:Configuration 1 has inductor L1 in series → tan30∘=(L1ω−1/ωC)/R.
tan30∘=RL1ω−ωC1…(1)
Step 3:Configuration 2 has inductor L2 in series → tan60∘=(L2ω−1/ωC)/R.
tan60∘=RL2ω−ωC1…(2)
Step 4:Divide (1) by (2) to remove R.
tan60∘tan30∘=31/3=31=L2ω−1/ωCL1ω−1/ωC
Step 5:Cross-multiply and rearrange to isolate (3L1−L2)ω.
L2ω−ωC1=3L1ω−ωC3⇒(3L1−L2)ω=ωC2
Step 6:Substitute ω=300 and C=10−4 F.
ω2C=(300)2×10−4=9×104×10−4=9
Step 7:Substitute back: with 3L1−L2=2/9, the ratio of tanϕ values returns 1/3.
(3L1−L2)=92H
Step 8:Required value (3L1−L2)=2/9 H, matching option 2.
(3L1−L2)=92H
Final answer: 92 H
Q43Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A circular current loop of radius R is placed inside a square loop of side length L (L≫R) such that they are co-planar and their centers coincide. The permeability of free space is μ0. The mutual inductance between circular loop and square loop is __________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 422Lμ0R2
Approach:
Since L≫R, treat the square's field over the tiny circle as the uniform value at the square's centre. Sum contributions from the four finite sides, compute flux through the circular loop, and use M=ϕ/i.
Step 1:Square side L, current i in square, inner co-planar circle radius R with R≪L centred at same point; target mutual inductance M.
L≫R,centres coincide
Step 2:At the centre, each side is at perpendicular distance d=L/2 and subtends α=β=45∘ at the centre.
d=L/2,α=β=45∘
Step 3:Contribution from one side of the square.
Bone side=4π(L/2)μ0i(2sin45∘)=4π(L/2)μ0i⋅2=2πLμ0i
Step 4:Net field at centre from all four sides (each contributes equally and in the same sense).
B=4⋅2πLμ0i=2πL4μ0i=πL22μ0i
Step 5:Treat B as uniform over the small circle; flux through circular loop of area πR2.
ϕ=BπR2=πL22μ0i⋅πR2=L22μ0iR2
Step 6:Dimensions of μ0R2/L → (H/m)(m2/m)=H, correct unit of inductance.
[μ0R2/L]=H
Step 7:M=ϕ/i=22μ0R2/L, matching option 4.
M=L22μ0R2
Final answer: M=L22μ0R2
Q44Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
The binding energy per nucleon of 83209Bi is _________ MeV. {Take m(83209Bi)=208.980388u, mp=1.007825u, mn=1.008665u, 1u=931MeV/c2}
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 27.84
Approach:
Compute mass defect Δm=Zmp+Nmn−mnucleus, convert to MeV using 1u=931MeV/c2, divide by A.
Step 1:Z=83 protons, N=209−83=126 neutrons, A=209, given masses in u; target BE per nucleon in MeV.
Step 6:Heavy nuclei lie below the iron peak (~8.8 MeV) on the BE/A curve; 7.84 MeV is the standard tabulated value for 209Bi.
7.84≲8.8MeV
Step 7:BE per nucleon ≈7.84 MeV, matching option 2.
ABE≈7.84MeV
Final answer: 7.84 MeV
Q45Single correctOscillations and Waves
The equation of motion of a particle is given by x=asin(50t+π/3) cm. The particle will come to rest at time t1 and it will have zero acceleration at time t2. The t1 and t2 respectively are _____________
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1300πs,75πs
Approach:
Differentiate to find v(t) and a(t). The particle is at rest when v=0⇒cos(50t+π/3)=0; acceleration is zero when sin(50t+π/3)=0. Solve for the smallest positive t in each case.
Step 1:x(t)=asin(50t+π/3) cm with ω=50 rad/s and phase π/3; target smallest t1 where v=0 and smallest t2 where aacc=0.
ω=50rad/s,ϕ0=π/3
Step 2:Set v=0⇒cos(50t1+π/3)=0, take the smallest positive root → argument equals π/2.
Step 6:At t1 argument =π/2 so cos=0 (rest, extreme position); at t2 argument =π so sin=0 (mean position, zero acceleration). Time gap t2−t1=π/100=T/4, consistent with SHM phase between extreme and mean.
If a Young's doubles lit experiment, the intensity at some point on the screen is found to be 43 times of the maximum of the interference pattern. The path difference between the interfering waves at this point is xλ where λ is wavelength of the incident light. The value of x is
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
Use the YDSE intensity formula I=Imaxcos2(ϕ/2) to convert intensity ratio to phase difference, then use ϕ=(2π/λ)Δx to obtain the path difference.
Step 1:Intensity ratio I/Imax=3/4; target x in Δx=λ/x.
ImaxI=43
Step 2:Apply YDSE intensity law.
43=cos2(2ϕ)⇒cos(2ϕ)=23
Step 3:Take inverse cosine for smallest positive value.
2ϕ=30∘=6π⇒ϕ=3πrad
Step 4:Convert phase to path difference.
Δx=2πλϕ=2πλ⋅3π=6λ
Step 5:Substitute Δx=λ/6 back: ϕ=(2π/λ)(λ/6)=π/3, then cos2(π/6)=3/4, recovering the given ratio.
cos2(π/6)=3/4
Step 6:Comparing Δx=λ/6 with λ/x gives x=6.
x=6
Final answer: 6
Q47NumericalAtoms and Nuclei
Using Bohr's model, calculate the ratio of the magnetic fields generated due to the motion of the electrons in the 2nd and 4th orbits of hydrogen atom.
SolutionAnswer: 32
Approach:
Treat the orbiting electron as a circular current loop. Equivalent current i=ev/(2πr); magnetic field at the nucleus B=μ0i/(2r)∝v/r2. Use Bohr scaling v∝z/n and r∝n2/z to get B∝z3/n5.
Step 1:Hydrogen (z=1); compare B at the nucleus for n1=2 versus n2=4; target ratio B2/B4.
n1=2,n2=4
Step 2:Equivalent current of an electron orbiting at speed v on radius r.
i=Te=2πr/ve=2πrev
Step 3:Magnetic field at the nucleus.
B=2rμ0i=2rμ0⋅2πrev=4πr2μ0ev
Step 4:Substitute Bohr scaling for hydrogen.
B∝r2v∝(n2)21/n=n51
Step 5:Form the requested ratio.
B4B2=n1′5n2′5→(24)5=25=32
Step 6:Dimensional/scaling check — B∝1/n5 means doubling n reduces B by factor 25=32, so B2/B4=32.
B2/B4=(n4/n2)5=25=32
Step 7:Required ratio is 32.
B2:B4=32:1
Final answer: 32
Q48NumericalThermodynamics
5 moles of unknown gas is heated at constant volume from 10∘C to 20∘C. The molar specific heat of this gas at constant pressure cp=8cal/mol⋅∘C and R=8.36J/mol⋅∘C. The change in the internal energy of the gas is ............ calorie.
SolutionAnswer: 300
Approach:
Use Mayer's relation to obtain Cv=Cp−R in cal/(mol⋅∘C), converting R to calories via 1cal=4.18J; then ΔU=nCvΔT.
Step 5:For an ideal gas ΔU depends only on temperature, so this value would also apply to any process between the same two states. Units check: mol⋅cal/(mol⋅∘C)⋅∘C=cal.
[ΔU]=cal
Step 6:ΔU=300 cal.
ΔU=300cal
Final answer: 300
Q49NumericalOptics
If sunlight is focused on a paper using convex lens, it starts burning the paper in shortest time when the lens is kept at 30 cm above the paper. If the radius of curvature of the lens is 60 cm then the refractive index of the lens material is 10α. The value of α is......
SolutionAnswer: 20
Approach:
Burning is fastest when intensity at the spot is maximum, i.e. sunlight (parallel rays) converges at the focal point, so f=30 cm. Apply the lens-maker's formula for a symmetric biconvex lens of equal radii R.
Step 1:Distance of burning spot from lens = focal length f=30 cm; equiconvex lens with both radii of curvature R=60 cm; target μ in form α/10.
f=30cm,R=60cm
Step 2:Simplify lens-maker's formula for an equiconvex lens.
f1=(μ−1)(R1−−R1)=R2(μ−1)
Step 3:Substitute numerical values.
301=602(μ−1)=30μ−1
Step 4:Solve for μ.
μ=2
Step 5:Back-substitute μ=2, R=60 cm into f=R/[2(μ−1)]: f=60/2=30 cm, matching the burning distance.
f=2(2−1)60=30cm
Step 6:Express μ=2=20/10, so α=20.
μ=10α=2⇒α=20
Final answer: 20
Q50NumericalRotational Motion
Moment of inertia about an axis AB for a rod of mass 40 kg and length 3 m is same as that of a solid sphere of mass of 10 kg and radius R about an axis parallel to AB axis with separation of 3 m as shown in figure below. The value of R is given as 2α. The value of α is..........
SolutionAnswer: 60
Approach:
Per the official setup, equate the rod's moment of inertia Ml2/3 about axis AB with the sphere's moment of inertia (2/5)mR2 about an axis through the sphere's centre parallel to AB, then solve for R in the form α/2.
Step 1:Rod M=40 kg, l=3 m, axis AB perpendicular to rod at its end; sphere m=10 kg, radius R, axis through its centre parallel to AB; target α in R=α/2.
M=40kg,l=3m,m=10kg
Step 2:Moment of inertia of the rod about axis AB.
Irod=3Ml2=340×9=120kg⋅m2
Step 3:Moment of inertia of the solid sphere about its diameter (axis through centre parallel to AB).
The ratio of mass percentage (W/W) C:H in a hydrocarbon is 12:1. It has two carbon atoms. The weight (in g) of CO2(g) formed when 3.38 g of this hydrocarbon is completely burnt in Oxygen is: (Given: Molar mass in g mol−1 — C: 12, H: 1, O: 16)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 211.44
Approach:
Determine molecular formula from C:H mass ratio with given carbon count, then use combustion stoichiometry to find moles of CO2 produced and its mass.
Step 1:Given mass ratio WC:WH = 12:1 and the hydrocarbon contains two carbon atoms; sample mass = 3.38 g.
nC=2,WHWC=112
Step 2:Convert mass ratio to atom ratio using atomic masses (C = 12, H = 1).
nHnC=WH/1WC/12=1/112/12=11
Step 3:With two C atoms, the hydrocarbon has two H atoms, giving molecular formula C2H2 (ethyne).
C2H2,M=2(12)+2(1)=26gmol−1
Step 4:Compute moles of hydrocarbon in 3.38 g sample.
nC2H2=263.38=0.13mol
Step 5:Apply combustion stoichiometry; each mole of C2H2 yields 2 mol CO2.
C2H2+25O2→2CO2+H2O
Step 6:Mass of CO2 = moles × molar mass (MCO2=44).
mCO2=0.26×44=11.44g
Step 7:Mass of CO2 produced is 11.44 g, matching option 2.
mCO2=11.44g
Final answer: 11.44 g
Q52Single correctEquilibrium
The first and second ionization constants of weak dibasic acid H2A are 8.1×10−8 and 1.0×10−13 respectively. 0.1 mol of H2A was dissolved in 1 L of 0.1 M HCl solution. The concentration of HA− in the resultant solution is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 38.1×10−8 M
Approach:
Use first ionization equilibrium of H2A with H+ supplied by strong acid HCl to obtain [HA−] directly from Ka1 expression.
Step 1:Given dibasic weak acid H2A with Ka1=8.1×10−8, Ka2=1.0×10−13; 0.1 mol H2A dissolved in 1 L of 0.1 M HCl.
[H2A]0=0.1M,[HCl]=0.1M
Step 2:HCl fully dissociates, providing [H+] ≈ 0.1 M. The very small Ka1 ensures H2A ionization is strongly suppressed, so [H2A] ≈ 0.1 M and [H+] ≈ 0.1 M.
[H+]≈0.1M,[H2A]≈0.1M
Step 3:Rearrange Ka1 expression to solve for [HA−].
[HA−]=Ka1[H+][H2A]=8.1×10−8×0.10.1
Step 4:Second ionization contribution [A2−]=Ka2×[HA−]/[H+]=10−13×8.1×10−8/0.1≈8.1×10−20 M, which is negligible relative to [HA−].
[A2−]≈8.1×10−20M≪[HA−]
Step 5:[HA−] in the resultant solution equals 8.1×10−8 M, matching option 3.
[HA−]=8.1×10−8M
Final answer: 8.1×10−8 M
Q53Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
SF4 is isostructural with: A. BrF4− B. CH4 C. IF4+ D. XeF4 E. XeO2F2 Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2C and E only
Approach:
Apply VSEPR to determine the geometry of SF4 (see-saw, AX4E) and compare each candidate species' steric number and lone-pair count to find those with the same shape.
Step 1:SF4 has central S with 6 valence electrons, four S–F bonds and one lone pair (AX4E, sp3d hybridization, see-saw geometry).
SF4:AX4E,see-saw
Step 2:BrF4−—Br has 7 valence e− +1 (charge) = 8; four bonds + two lone pairs (AX4E2) → square planar; not see-saw.
BrF4−:AX4E2,square planar
Step 3:CH4—C has 4 bond pairs, no lone pair (AX4) → tetrahedral.
CH4:AX4,tetrahedral
Step 4:IF4+—I has 7 valence e− −1 (charge) = 6; four bonds + one lone pair (AX4E) → see-saw.
IF4+:AX4E,see-saw
Step 5:XeF4—Xe has 8 valence e−; four bonds + two lone pairs (AX4E2) → square planar.
XeF4:AX4E2,square planar
Step 6:XeO2F2—Xe forms two Xe=O and two Xe–F σ-bonds with one lone pair (AX4E) → see-saw.
XeO2F2:AX4E,see-saw
Step 7:Only IF4+ and XeO2F2 share AX4E geometry with SF4 (see-saw).
Isostructural with SF4:IF4+,XeO2F2
Step 8:The isostructural species are C and E only.
C and E only
Final answer: C and E only
Q54Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
Gas 'A' undergoes change from state 'X' to state 'Y', in this process, the heat absorbed and work done by the gas is 10 J and 18 J respectively. Now gas is brought back to state 'X' by another process during which 6 J of heat is evolved. In the reverse process of 'Y' to 'X':
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 414 J of the work is done on the gas 'A' by the surrounding
Approach:
Apply the first law of thermodynamics over the cyclic process; internal energy is a state function so ΔUX→Y+ΔUY→X=0. Use sign conventions consistently and solve for the work in the reverse step.
Step 1:Process X → Y absorbs heat qXY = +10 J and the gas does work wXY = +18 J on surroundings.
qXY=+10J,wXY,by=+18J
Step 2:Compute change in internal energy for the forward process using ΔU=q−wby.
ΔUXY=10−18=−8J
Step 3:For the reverse process Y → X, internal energy change is opposite in sign.
ΔUYX=−ΔUXY=+8J
Step 4:Heat is evolved (released) during Y → X, so qYX = −6 J. Apply first law to solve for wYX,by.
ΔUYX=qYX−wYX,by⇒8=−6−wYX,by
Step 5:Negative wby means work is done on the gas by the surroundings; magnitude = 14 J.
won gas=+14J
Step 6:Sum heats and works over cycle: ΔUcycle=(10+(−6))−(18+(−14))=4−4=0, consistent with state function.
ΔUcycle=qnet−wnet,by=4−4=0
Step 7:14 J of work is done on the gas by the surroundings, matching option 4.
won gas=14J
Final answer: 14 J of the work is done on the gas 'A' by the surrounding
Q55Single correctSolutions
Solution A is prepared by dissolving 1 g of a protein (molar mass = 50000 g mol−1) in 0.5 L of water at 300 K. Its osmotic pressure is x bar. Solution B is made by dissolving 2 g of same protein in 1 L of water at 300 K. Osmotic pressure of solution B is y bar. Entire solution of A is mixed with entire solution of B at same temperature. The osmotic pressure of resultant solution is z bar. x, y and z respectively are (R = 0.083 L bar mol−1K−1):
Use van't Hoff equation π=CRT with molar concentration computed from mass/molar-mass per unit volume; for the mixture, compute the total moles divided by total volume.
Step 1:Protein molar mass M = 50000 g mol−1, T = 300 K, R = 0.083 L bar mol−1K−1.
M=50000gmol−1,T=300K
Step 2:Solution A—1 g protein in 0.5 L. Moles nA=1/50000=2×10−5 mol; CA=2×10−5/0.5=4×10−5 M.
CA=0.51/50000=4×10−5molL−1
Step 3:Compute x=πA=CART.
x=4×10−5×0.083×300=9.96×10−4bar
Step 4:Solution B—2 g protein in 1 L. Moles nB=2/50000=4×10−5 mol; CB=4×10−5 M (same as A).
CB=12/50000=4×10−5molL−1
Step 5:y=πB=CBRT=9.96×10−4 bar.
y=9.96×10−4bar
Step 6:Mixing A and B gives total moles n=nA+nB=6×10−5 mol in total volume V=0.5+1=1.5 L, so Cmix=6×10−5/1.5=4×10−5 M.
Cmix=1.56×10−5=4×10−5molL−1
Step 7:z=πmix=CmixRT=9.96×10−4 bar.
z=9.96×10−4bar
Step 8:Since both A and B have identical molar concentrations, the mixture concentration equals either parent; osmotic pressure stays unchanged.
x=y=z=9.96×10−4bar
Step 9:x,y,z=9.96×10−4 bar each, matching option 1.
x=y=z=9.96×10−4bar
Final answer: 9.96×10−4;9.96×10−4;9.96×10−4
Q56Single correctEquilibrium
At 25∘C, 20.0 mL of 0.2 M weak monoprotic acid HX is titrated against 0.2 M NaOH. The pH of the solution (a) at the start of the titration (when NaOH has not been added) and (b) when 10 mL of NaOH is added respectively are: Given: Ka=5×10−4, pKa=3.3
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22.0, 3.3
Approach:
Use weak-acid approximation [H+]=KaC for the starting pH, and the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation at the half-neutralization point where [HX] = [X−], giving pH = pKa.
Step 1:20.0 mL of 0.2 M HX (nHX=4 mmol), Ka=5×10−4, pKa=3.3; titrant 0.2 M NaOH.
nHX=0.020×0.2=4×10−3mol
Step 2:No NaOH added. Apply weak-acid approximation with C = 0.2 M.
[H+]=(5×10−4)(0.2)=1×10−4=10−2M
Step 3:PH at start.
pH=−log(10−2)=2.0
Step 4:10 mL of 0.2 M NaOH = 2 mmol OH− added, which converts half of HX into NaX (half-equivalence point).
nOH−=0.010×0.2=2×10−3mol=21nHX
Step 5:At half-equivalence, [HX] = [X−], so Henderson–Hasselbalch reduces to pH = pKa.
pH=pKa+log(1)=3.3
Step 6:Approximation [H+]≪C holds since 10−2≪0.2(α=5, validating the weak-acid formula.
α=0.210−2=0.05
Step 7:(a) pH = 2.0, (b) pH = 3.3 — option 2.
pHa=2.0,pHb=3.3
Final answer: 2.0, 3.3
Q57Single correctChemical Kinetics
Consider the reaction aX→bY, for which the rate constant at 300∘C is 1×10−3mol−1Ls−1. Which of the following statements are true?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A and B only
Approach:
Identify reaction order from the units of the rate constant; test each statement against the second-order rate law, its integrated form, half-life expression, and known kinetic behaviour of N2O5 decomposition.
Step 1:Rate constant k=1×10−3mol−1Ls−1. Units of k for an n-th order reaction are mol1−nLn−1s−1; mol−1Ls−1 corresponds to n=2.
units(k)=mol1−nLn−1s−1⇒n=2
Step 2:For r = k[X]2, if [X] becomes 4[X], rate becomes (4)2 = 16 times original.
roldrnew=([X]4[X])2=16
Step 3:Established in step 1 that the reaction is second order.
n=2
Step 4:For second order, t1/2 = 1/(k[X]0), which depends on initial concentration.
t1/2∝[X]01
Step 5:Gas-phase decomposition of N2O5 is a classical first-order reaction (r = k[N2O5]), not second order.
2N2O5→4NO2+O2,first order in [N2O5]
Step 6:Ln([R0]/[R]) vs t is the integrated rate law for first order; second order requires 1/[X] vs t.
ln[R][R]0=kt⇒first order
Step 7:Only A and B remain true; C, D, E violate second-order kinetics.
True={A,B}
Step 8:Correct option is A and B only, matching option 1.
A and B only
Final answer: A and B only
Q58Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The correct set that contain all kinds (basic, acids, amphoteric and neutral) of Oxides is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3K2O, Cl2O7, As2O3 and NO
Approach:
Classify each oxide in every option as basic, acidic, amphoteric, or neutral and pick the option that contains exactly one representative from each of the four categories.
Step 1:Identify standard classifications. Basic: Na2O, K2O. Acidic: Cl2O7. Amphoteric: Al2O3, As2O3. Neutral: CO, NO, N2O.
Step 6:Cl2O7 is the anhydride of HClO4 (strongly acidic); NO is a well-known neutral oxide (does not react with acids or bases under normal conditions); As2O3 dissolves in both HCl and NaOH (amphoteric); K2O reacts with water to give KOH (basic).
Cl2O7+H2O→2HClO4;K2O+H2O→2KOH
Step 7:Only option 3 contains all four kinds of oxides.
K2O,Cl2O7,As2O3,NO
Final answer: K2O, Cl2O7, As2O3 and NO
Q59Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The second ionization enthalpy of B, Al and Ga is in order of B > Al > Ga. Statement II: The correct order in terms of first ionization enthalpy is Si < Ge < Pb < Sn. In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Both statement I and statement II are false
Approach:
Evaluate the two statements against standard second-IE data for Group 13 (B, Al, Ga) and first-IE data for Group 14 (Si, Ge, Sn, Pb), accounting for poor d-shielding in Ga and inert-pair stabilisation in Pb.
Step 1:List IE2 (kJ mol−1) for Group 13 elements B, Al, Ga from standard data.
IE2(B)=2427,IE2(Ga)=1979,IE2(Al)=1816
Step 2:Rank IE2 from the values; B (small size, high Zeff) tops, Ga sits above Al because the intervening 3d10 shell shields poorly and raises Zeff on the 4s electron of Ga+.
IE2:B>Ga>Al
Step 3:Compare with the proposed Statement I order B > Al > Ga.
Proposed: B>Al>Ga;Actual: B>Ga>Al
Step 4:List IE1 (kJ mol−1) for Group 14 elements Si, Ge, Sn, Pb from standard data.
Step 5:Rank IE1; Si > Ge owing to smaller size; Pb > Sn because 6s2 inert pair is poorly shielded by 4f145d10 raising Zeff.
IE1:Si>Ge>Pb>Sn
Step 6:Compare with the proposed Statement II order Si < Ge < Pb < Sn (the reverse direction).
Proposed: Si<Ge<Pb<Sn
Step 7:Both statements contradict the standard IE data, so both are false.
SI=False,SII=False
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q60Single correctd- and f-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Among Zn, Mn, Sc and Cu, the energy required to remove the third valence electron is highest for Zn and lowest for Sc. Statement II: The correct order of the following complexes in terms of CFSE is [Co(H2O)6]2+<[Co(H2O)6]3+<[Co(en)3]3+. In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Both statement I and statement II are true
Approach:
Compare IE3 values across Sc, Mn, Cu, Zn using the configurations of M2+ ions, then rank CFSE of the three Co complexes using the dependence of Δo on oxidation state and ligand field strength.
Step 1:Write the M2+ configurations for Sc, Mn, Cu, Zn.
Sc2+:[Ar]3d1Mn2+:[Ar]3d5Cu2+:[Ar]3d9Zn2+:[Ar]3d10
Step 2:IE3 removes the third electron from M2+. Zn2+ has the very stable 3d10 shell, so IE3 is highest. Sc2+ has a single 3d electron easily removed leaving a noble-gas [Ar] core, so IE3 is lowest.
Step 3:Order shows highest IE3 for Zn and lowest for Sc, matching Statement I.
IE3:Zn>Cu>Mn>Sc
Step 4:For Statement II, list the three Co complexes and note oxidation state and ligand type. [Co(H2O)6]2+: Co(II), weak-field H2O. [Co(H2O)6]3+: Co(III), weak-field H2O. [Co(en)3]3+: Co(III), stronger-field ethylenediamine.
[Co(H2O)6]2+,[Co(H2O)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+
Step 5:For the same metal and same ligand, raising the charge from +2 to +3 contracts orbitals and increases Δo, hence [Co(H2O)6]3+ has larger Δo than [Co(H2O)6]2+. Among Co(III) complexes, en is higher in the spectrochemical series than H2O, so [Co(en)3]3+ has the largest Δo.
Step 6:Order of CFSE matches the proposed inequality in Statement II.
CFSE:[Co(H2O)6]2+<[Co(H2O)6]3+<[Co(en)3]3+
Step 7:Both statements are consistent with standard data, so the correct option is Option 1.
SI=True,SII=True
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q61Single correctCoordination Compounds
Which of the following complexes will show coordination isomerism? A. [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] B. [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] C. [Co(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] D. [Fe(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] E. [Co(NH3)6][Fe(CN)6]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2B, D and E only
Approach:
Coordination isomerism arises in salts with both cationic and anionic complex spheres when the two metal centres differ, allowing ligand exchange between the spheres to give a distinct isomer; screen each complex for this condition.
Step 1:Identify the metal in the cation and in the anion of each salt.
A:Ag/AgB:Co/CrC:Co/CoD:Fe/CoE:Co/Fe
Step 2:Apply the criterion that coordination isomerism requires two different metals in the two spheres so that ligand interchange yields a structurally distinct salt.
Mcation=Manion⇒coordination isomerism
Step 3:[Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] has Ag in both spheres; interchange gives the same compound back.
A:Mcation=Manion=Ag
Step 4:[Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] has Co and Cr; interchange gives [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6].
B:Co=Cr
Step 5:[Co(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] has Co in both spheres (same oxidation state implied), no new isomer on interchange.
C:Mcation=Manion=Co
Step 6:[Fe(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] has Fe and Co; interchange gives [Co(NH3)6][Fe(CN)6], a distinct salt.
D:Fe=Co
Step 7:[Co(NH3)6][Fe(CN)6] has Co and Fe; interchange gives [Fe(NH3)6][Co(CN)6], distinct from E.
E:Co=Fe
Step 8:Coordination isomerism is observed in B, D and E only, matching Option 2.
Answer set={B,D,E}
Final answer: B, D and E only
Q62Single correctPurification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
Complete combustion of X g of an organic compound gave 0.25 g of CO2 and 0.12 g of H2O. If the % of carbon is 25% and of hydrogen is 4.89%, then X=…×10−3 g (Nearest integer). (Molar mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and 16 g mol−1 respectively)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1273
Approach:
Convert the masses of CO2 and H2O into masses of C and H, then use the given percentage of each element to back-calculate the sample mass X, retaining the value rounded to the nearest integer of 10−3 g.
Step 1:Note the given quantities mCO2=0.25 g, mH2O=0.12 g, %C =25, %H =4.89, with M(C)=12, M(H)=1, M(O)=16.
mCO2=0.25g,mH2O=0.12g
Step 2:Compute mass of carbon obtained in combustion.
mC=4412×0.25=0.0681≈0.06g
Step 3:Compute mass of hydrogen obtained in combustion.
mH=182×0.12=0.013≈0.01g
Step 4:Use the carbon percentage to solve for X.
25=X0.06×100⇒X=250.06×100×11
Step 5:Use the hydrogen percentage to solve for X.
Step 6:With the exact carbon mass 0.0682 g and %C =25, X=250.0682×100=0.2727 g, consistent with the hydrogen channel.
X≈0.2727g
Step 7:Convert X to the requested units of 10−3 g.
X=0.2727g=272.7×10−3g≈273×10−3g
Final answer: X=273×10−3 g
Q63Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Given below are two statements:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Both statement I and statement II are true
Approach:
Apply the standard rules that carbocations are stabilised by electron-releasing groups via +R and carbanions by electron-withdrawing groups via −R, examining each substituent through the para-aryl ring directly conjugated with the charged centre.
Step 1:Identify the para substituents on the two aryl rings and the charged benzylic centre in each statement. −OCH3 donates a lone pair to the ring (+R); −NO2 withdraws via its π system (−R).
−OCH3:+R(ERG)−NO2:−R(EWG)
Step 2:For Statement I, the lone pair on −OCH3 delocalises through the para-methoxyphenyl ring into the empty p-orbital of the adjacent C+, distributing the positive charge over the methoxy oxygen.
MeO−Ar−C+H2↔MeO+=Ar=CH2
Step 3:The presence of a para −OCH3 on a benzylic cation is the classic resonance stabilisation case; hence Statement I is TRUE.
+Rof−OCH3⇒stabilisesC+
Step 4:For Statement II, the carbanion lone pair delocalises through the para-nitrophenyl ring into the π∗ of −NO2, placing the negative charge on the strongly electronegative oxygens of nitro.
O2N−Ar−C−H↔O−−N+(=O)−Ar=CH
Step 5:−R delocalisation of a benzylic carbanion onto para −NO2 is the standard textbook example; hence Statement II is TRUE.
−Rof−NO2⇒stabilisesC−
Step 6:Both statements correctly identify the dominant resonance stabilisation in each species, matching Option 1.
SI=True,SII=True
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q64Single correctHydrocarbons
The compound (X) on (i) heating in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and HCl gas gives 2,4-dimethyl pentane, (ii) aromatization gives toluene, and (iii) cyclisation gives methyl cyclohexane. The correct name of compound (X) is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Heptane
Approach:
All three transformations (Lewis-acid catalysed isomerisation, dehydrocyclisation to toluene, cyclisation to methylcyclohexane) are diagnostic of a straight-chain C7 alkane; deduce that X is n-heptane and reject the alkene/triene options because they would not undergo AlCl3/HCl skeletal isomerisation to 2,4-dimethyl pentane.
Step 1:Count the carbons in the products. Toluene (C6H5CH3) and methylcyclohexane (C7H14) both carry 7 C atoms; 2,4-dimethylpentane is also C7.
Step 2:Anhydrous AlCl3/HCl is a textbook Lewis-acid catalyst for skeletal isomerisation of saturated alkanes; alkenes/polyenes would polymerise or undergo addition under these conditions, not branch to 2,4-DMP.
n-C7H16AlCl3/HClbranched C7H16(2,4-DMP)
Step 3:Aromatisation (dehydrocyclisation) of n-heptane over Cr2O3/Al2O3 at ∼773 K loses 4 H2 to give toluene.
CH3(CH2)5CH3Cr2O3,773KC6H5CH3+4H2
Step 4:Catalytic cyclisation of n-heptane closes the chain to methylcyclohexane with loss of one H2.
CH3(CH2)5CH3→C6H11CH3+H2
Step 5:Hept-2-ene, hepta-1,3,5-triene and hepta-2,4,6-triene are unsaturated and would not survive AlCl3/HCl to give 2,4-DMP; only n-heptane satisfies all three transformations.
Correct statement regarding alkyl halides (R-X) among the following are: A. Alcohol being less polar solvent as compared to water, alcoholic KOH favours elimination reaction with R-X. B. Order of reactivity towards SN1 mechanism: C6H5-CH2-Cl>C6H5-CHCl-C6H5. C. Non substituted aryl halides exhibit properties similar to alkyl halides. D. Vinyl chloride is an example of haloalkene and allyl chloride is an example of haloalkyne. E. R-Cl can be prepared by reaction of R-OH with SOCl2, but Ar-Cl cannot be prepared by reacting Ar-OH with SOCl2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3A and E only
Approach:
Test each statement against standard alkyl/aryl halide chemistry: solvent polarity controls E2 vs SN2; benzylic-cation stability governs SN1; aryl halide resonance differs from alkyl halides; allyl chloride is a haloalkane; Darzen's procedure works for alcohols but not phenols.
Step 1:List each statement A-E and the diagnostic chemistry needed to test it.
A,B,C,D,E as given
Step 2:Ethanol is less polar than water; in the less polar medium OH− is less solvated but more basic, favouring deprotonation (E2) over nucleophilic substitution. So alcoholic KOH causes elimination of R-X.
Alcoholic KOH⇒E2(alkene)
Step 3:The intermediate cation in C6H5-CHCl-C6H5 is the diphenyl methyl cation (stabilised by two aryl rings), whereas benzyl chloride gives only the benzyl cation (one aryl ring). The diphenyl cation is more stable, so C6H5CHClC6H5 reacts faster, not slower. The stated order is reversed.
Step 4:Aryl halides have partial C-X double-bond character from resonance of the halogen lone pair into the ring, making them much less reactive in nucleophilic substitution than alkyl halides; properties are NOT similar.
Ar-X:partial C=Xcharacter
Step 5:Vinyl chloride CH2=CHCl is correctly a haloalkene, but allyl chloride CH2=CH-CH2-Cl has Cl on an sp3 carbon and is a haloalkane (not haloalkyne).
Allyl chloride:CH2=CH-CH2-Cl⇒haloalkane
Step 6:SOCl2 converts R-OH to R-Cl smoothly with gaseous SO2 and HCl by-products. With Ar-OH the C-O bond has partial double-bond character (resonance into the ring), so the OH cannot be displaced and Ar-Cl is not obtained.
R-OH+SOCl2→R-Cl+SO2+HCl;Ar-OH+SOCl2→Ar-Cl
Step 7:Cross-check the true/false assignments — A true (alcohol vs water medium for OH−), E true (SOCl2 with R-OH); B, C, D shown false above. Two correct statements confirms option 3.
Correct statements={A,E}
Step 8:Only A and E are correct, matching Option 3.
Correct set={A,E}
Final answer: A and E only
Q66Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
An organic compound x, where the molar ratio of C, O and H are equal, on treatment with 50% KOH under reflux followed by acidification produced y. The most likely structure of y is: [Molar mass of x is 58 g mol−1]
Use the equal C:O:H molar ratio and the molar mass 58 g mol−1 to fix the molecular formula as C2H2O2; assign x as glyoxal (OHC-CHO), apply the intramolecular Cannizzaro reaction with 50% KOH that simultaneously oxidises one CHO to COO− and reduces the other to CH2OH, and acidify to obtain glycolic acid as y.
Step 1:Let the molecular formula be CnOnHn with the equal-ratio condition; the molar mass is 29n.
M=12n+16n+n=29n
Step 2:Set 29n=58 to find n.
29n=58⇒n=2
Step 3:C2H2O2 with two oxygens and only two hydrogens fits OHC-CHO (glyoxal) - a dialdehyde with no α-H, exactly the condition for the Cannizzaro reaction with concentrated KOH.
x=OHC-CHO(glyoxal)
Step 4:Under 50% KOH reflux, an intramolecular Cannizzaro occurs - hydroxide attacks one CHO and a hydride migrates from that tetrahedral intermediate to the other CHO; one carbonyl is oxidised to carboxylate and the other reduced to primary alcohol on the same molecule.
OHC-CHO50%KOHHOCH2-COO−K+
Step 5:Acidification protonates the carboxylate to give the free carboxylic acid.
HOCH2-COO−K+H+HOCH2-COOH
Step 6:Glycolic acid has formula C2H4O3, which is balanced versus the reactants (C2H2O2+H2O→C2H4O3); only option 3 shows both -OH on CH2 and -COOH on the same C2 skeleton.
C2H2O2+H2O→HOCH2COOH
Step 7:Y is glycolic acid, HOOC-CH2-OH, matching Option 3.
y=HOCH2-COOH
Final answer: y=HOOC-CH2-OH (glycolic acid)
Q67Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
A molecule (x) with the following structure, under mild acid condition, is hydrolysed to produce (Y) and (Z). Identify the correct statement about (Y) and (Z).
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4A and D only
Approach:
Hydrolyse the unsymmetrical bis-enol ether to two enols, tautomerise to a propanal (Y) and an acetone (Z), then test each statement A-D against carbonyl chemistry of an aldehyde versus a ketone.
Step 1:Ether (x) = (E)-CH3CH=CH-O-C(CH3)=CH2 (1-propenyl isopropenyl ether); identify (Y), (Z) and test statements A-D about identity, NaHCO3, HCN and 2,4-DNP.
(x)=CH3CH=CH-O-C(CH3)=CH2
Step 2:Protonate and hydrolyse the enol ether to give two enols.
(x)H3O+CH3CH=CHOH+CH2=C(OH)CH3
Step 3:Tautomerise each enol to its carbonyl form.
Identify compounds A and E in the following reaction sequence:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2A = 2-bromo-1-ethyl-4-nitrobenzene (Br ortho to -C2H5, NO2 para to -C2H5); E = 2-bromobenzoic acid (o-bromobenzoic acid)
Approach:
March through the five steps using directing effects, functional-group inter-conversion (Sn/HCl, diazonium, deamination by ethanol) and side-chain oxidation by KMnO4 to identify each intermediate; identify A after Step-1 and E after Step-5.
Step 1:Substrate is p-nitroethylbenzene (C2H5 at C1, NO2 at C4); target A = product of Br2/AlBr3; target E = product after Sn/HCl, NaNO2/HCl(273-278 K), C2H5OH, KMnO4/KOH then H3O+.
p-O2N-C6H4-C2H5
Step 2:In Br2/AlBr3, -C2H5 is o/p activator and -NO2 is m-deactivator. The para position to -C2H5 is blocked by -NO2; both ortho positions to -C2H5 are also meta to -NO2 (mutually reinforcing). Br enters one ortho position to -C2H5.
A=2-Br-1-ethyl-4-nitrobenzene
Step 3:Sn/HCl reduces the aromatic -NO2 to -NH2 (other groups unaffected).
ASn/HClB=2-Br-1-ethyl-4-aminobenzene
Step 4:NaNO2/HCl at 273-278 K converts -NH2 to a stable diazonium salt -N2+Cl−.
Final answer: Option 2 - A = 2-bromo-1-ethyl-4-nitrobenzene; E = o-bromobenzoic acid
Q69Single correctBiomolecules
Identify the correct pair having amino acid (A) and the hormone (B) that is an iodinated derivative of the amino acid (A). (T and Y represent one letter code for amino acids)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3A = Y; B = Thyroxine
Approach:
Use the NCERT statement that thyroxine is the iodinated derivative of the amino acid tyrosine (one-letter code Y); insulin is a 51-residue polypeptide and is not an iodinated single amino acid.
Step 1:Pair (A, B) where B is the hormone formed by iodination of amino acid A; one-letter codes T (Threonine) and Y (Tyrosine) are used.
A∈{T,Y},B∈{Insulin, Thyroxine}
Step 2:Identify the hormone that is an iodinated amino-acid derivative. Insulin is a 51-residue protein hormone (no iodine); thyroxine (T4) is 3,5,3',5'-tetraiodo derivative of tyrosine.
Step 3:Tyrosine carries one-letter code Y, so A = Y.
Tyrosine≡Y
Step 4:Only option 3 carries A = Y and B = Thyroxine simultaneously.
Option 3:A=Y,B=Thyroxine
Step 5:The correct pair is A = Y (tyrosine), B = Thyroxine.
A=Y;B=Thyroxine
Final answer: Option 3 - A = Y (tyrosine); B = Thyroxine
Q70Single correctd- and f-Block Elements
Among Fe2+, Fe3+, Cr2+ and Zn2+, the ion that shows a positive borax bead test and has the highest ionization enthalpy is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Fe3+
Approach:
Apply two criteria sequentially: (i) the borax bead test demands a coloured transition-metal ion with partly filled d-orbitals; (ii) among the surviving ions, the one whose formation needs the highest cumulative ionization enthalpy is the answer.
Step 1:Choose ion from {Fe2+,Fe3+,Cr2+,Zn2+} that gives a positive borax bead test and has the highest ionization enthalpy.
Step 3:Zn2+ is 3d10 (filled), so it is colourless and fails the borax bead test; eliminate it.
Zn2+:3d10⇒no borax bead
Step 4:Fe2+, Fe3+ and Cr2+ all have partly filled d-orbitals and give coloured borax beads (Fe2+/Fe3+ yellow/brown, Cr2+ green).
Fe2+,Fe3+,Cr2+⇒positive borax bead
Step 5:Compare cumulative IE. To form Fe3+ requires IE1+IE2+IE3 of Fe; Fe2+ and Cr2+ require only IE1+IE2. The third IE of Fe is large (removal from stable 3d6 to 3d5 shell), making ΣIE(Fe3+) the highest in the set.
The surface of sodium metal is irradiated with radiation of wavelength x nm. The kinetic energy of ejected electrons is 2.8×10−20 J. The work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. The value of x is ……×102 nm (Nearest integer). (Given: h=6.6×10−34 Js; 1eV=1.6×10−19 J; c=3.0×108ms−1)
SolutionAnswer: 5
Approach:
Apply Einstein's photoelectric equation hc/λ=ϕ+KE, solve for λ in metres, convert to nm and then express in the requested form x×102 nm.
Step 1:Given ϕ=2.3 eV, KE=2.8×10−20 J, h=6.6×10−34 Js, c=3.0×108 m s−1, 1eV=1.6×10−19 J; find λ in the form x×102 nm.
ϕ=2.3eV,KE=2.8×10−20J
Step 2:Convert the work function to joules.
ϕ=2.3×1.6×10−19=3.68×10−19J
Step 3:Substitute in Einstein's equation.
λ(6.6×10−34)(3.0×108)=3.68×10−19+2.8×10−20
Step 4:Add the right-hand-side energies on a common 10−20 basis.
Step 7:Dimensional and back-substitution. hc/λ=(1.98×10−25)/(5×10−7)=3.96×10−19 J, matching ϕ+KE=3.68×10−19+0.28×10−19=3.96×10−19 J.
λhc=3.96×10−19J=ϕ+KE
Step 8:The stem requests λ written as x×102 nm. With λ=500 nm =5×102 nm, x=5.
500nm=5×102nm⇒x=5
Final answer: x=5 (i.e. λ=5×102 nm =500 nm)
Q72NumericalChemical Kinetics
Consider the following gas phase reaction being carried out in a closed vessel at 25∘C: 2A(g)⟶4B(g)+C(g) time (min) | total pressure of the system (mm Hg) | 30 | 300 | ∞ | 600 | The pressure of C(g) at 30 minutes time interval would be …… mm Hg (nearest integer).
SolutionAnswer: 20
Approach:
Set up an ICE-like table of partial pressures; use the t=∞ condition to obtain the initial pressure P0 of A, then the t=30 min condition to obtain the extent x, hence PC(30)=x.
Step 1:At t=0 only A is present with pressure P0; let 2x be the pressure of A consumed at t=30 min. From stoichiometry, 4x pressure of B and x of C form. At t=∞ all A is consumed.
t=0t=30t=∞2AP0P0−2x04B04x2P0C0xP0/2
Step 2:Apply total-pressure condition at t=∞: Ptot=0+2P0+P0/2=5P0/2=600.
25P0=600⇒P0=240mm Hg
Step 3:Apply total-pressure condition at t=30 min: (P0−2x)+4x+x=P0+3x=300.
240+3x=300⇒3x=60
Step 4:Identify PC at t=30 min: PC=x=20 mm Hg.
PC(30)=x=20mm Hg
Step 5:Substitute back at t=30: PA=240−40=200; PB=80; PC=20; sum =300 mm Hg, matching the data.
200+80+20=300mm Hg
Step 6:The partial pressure of C(g) at t=30 min is 20 mm Hg.
PC=20mm Hg
Final answer: 20 mm Hg
Q73NumericalElectrochemistry
Consider the following two half-cell reactions along with the standard reduction potential given:
SolutionAnswer: 560
Approach:
Compute Ecell∘, then maximum electrical work ∣ΔG∘∣=nFEcell∘ for n=6 electrons per mole of CH3OH; apply 80% efficiency; equate available work to ∣PextΔV∣ for isothermal compression to find ΔV.
Step 1:Cathode = O2 reduction (higher Ered∘=1.23 V); anode = CO2/CH3OH (lower Ered∘=0.02 V, written here as reduction but operating in oxidation direction); n=6 per mole of CH3OH; efficiency η=0.80; Pext=1 kPa =103 Pa; F=96500 C mol−1.
EC∘=1.23V,EA∘=0.02V,n=6,η=0.80,Pext=103Pa
Step 2:Compute the standard cell EMF.
Ecell∘=1.23−0.02=1.21V
Step 3:Compute ∣ΔG∘∣ for 1 mol CH3OH using n=6.
∣ΔG∘∣=nFEcell∘=6×96500×1.21=700590J
Step 4:Apply 80% efficiency to get available work.
Wav=0.80×700590=560472J
Step 5:Equate available work to ∣PextΔV∣ and solve for ΔV.
Number of paramagnetic ions among the following d- and f-block metal ions is …… Mn2+,Cu2+,Zn2+,Yb2+,Sc3+,La3+,Gd3+,Lu3+,Ti4+,Ce4+ (Atomic number of Mn = 25, Cu = 29, Yb = 70, Sc = 21, La = 57, Gd = 64, Lu = 71, Ti = 22, Ce = 58)
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
Write the d-/f-electronic configuration of each ion and count those with at least one unpaired electron; such ions are paramagnetic.
Step 1:Classify each ion of the list using its valence-shell d- or f-occupancy and count paramagnetic species.
Step 5:Cross-check unpaired-electron counts. Mn2+ 5e−, Cu2+ 1e−, Gd3+ 7e−; all others 0 unpaired electrons. Count of paramagnetic ions =3.
npara=3
Step 6:Number of paramagnetic ions =3.
3
Final answer: 3
Q75NumericalOrganic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Consider the following reactions sequence
SolutionAnswer: 1
Approach:
Trace the four steps to identify product P, write its molecular formula, then use the Carius relation (one Br per molecule) to compute the mass of AgBr obtained from 1.0 g of P via the molar-mass ratio M(AgBr)/M(P).
Step 1:Substrate p-nitrotoluene (-CH3 at C1, -NO2 at C4); four-step sequence (i) Sn/HCl, OH− (ii) (CH3CO)2O (iii) Br2/AlBr3 (iv) H3O+; target = mass of AgBr from 1.0 g of P.
p-O2N-C6H4-CH3
Step 2:Sn/HCl reduces -NO2 to -NH3+Cl− and OH− liberates -NH2, giving p-toluidine.
p-O2N-C6H4-CH3Sn/HCl;OH−p-H2N-C6H4-CH3
Step 3:Acetic anhydride acetylates -NH2 to -NHCOCH3, lowering its activating power and protecting it during electrophilic bromination.
Step 4:With -NHCOCH3 (strong o/p-director) at C1 and -CH3 (weaker o/p-director) at C4, the para position to -NHCOCH3 is blocked. Bromination occurs at the ortho position to the dominant director (-NHCOCH3), giving the 2-bromo derivative.
Br enters C2 (ortho to -NHCOCH3)
Step 5:H3O+ hydrolyses the amide back to the free amine, leaving the C-Br intact.
Step 7:Apply the Carius mass relation (one Br per molecule, so n(AgBr)=n(P)).
mass AgBr=186188×1.0=1.0108g
Step 8:Dimensional check via moles. n(P)=1.0/186=5.376×10−3 mol =n(AgBr); mass AgBr =5.376×10−3×188=1.0108 g, matches.
nP=nAgBr=5.376×10−3mol⇒mAgBr=1.011g
Step 9:Rounding 1.0108 g to the nearest integer gives 1 g of AgBr.
1g
Final answer: 1 g
Mathematics25 questions
Q1Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Let α,β be the roots of the equation x2−3x+r=0 and 2α,2β be the roots of the equation x2+3x+r=0. If the roots of the equation x2+6x=m are 2α+β+2r and α−2β−2r, then m is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4567
Approach:
Apply Vieta's formulas to both quadratics to determine α,β,r, then construct the new quadratic from the prescribed roots and read off m.
Step 1:Given α,β are roots of x2−3x+r=0 and α/2,2β are roots of x2+3x+r=0. The roots of x2+6x−m=0 are 2α+β+2r and α−2β−r/2. Target: value of m.
α+β=3,αβ=r;2α+2β=−3,αβ=r
Step 2:Solve the two linear equations α+β=3 and α/2+2β=−3. Multiply the second by 2 to get α+4β=−6; subtract the first to obtain 3β=−9.
3β=−9⇒β=−3,α=6
Step 3:Compute r using the product relation.
r=αβ=(6)(−3)=−18
Step 4:Evaluate the prescribed roots of x2+6x−m=0.
2α+β+2r=12−3−36=−27;α−2β−2r=6+6+9=21
Step 5:Apply product of roots to x2+6x−m=0 where product equals −m.
(−27)(21)=−m⇒−567=−m⇒m=567
Step 6:Sum of roots gives −27+21=−6 which equals the coefficient −6 in x2+6x−m=0, confirming the pair are correct roots.
−27+21=−6✓
Step 7:Hence m=567, matching option (4).
m=567
Final answer: m=567
Q2Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Let the circles C1:∣z∣=r and C2:∣z−3−4i∣=5,z∈C, be such that C2 lies within C1. If z1 moves on C1, z2 moves on C2 and min∣z1−z2∣=2, then max∣z1−z2∣ is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 322
Approach:
Use that for circle C2 lying inside C1, the extreme values of ∣z1−z2∣ occur along the line joining the centres, giving min=r−d−R and max=r+d+R where d is the distance between centres and R the radius of C2.
Step 1:C1 is centred at O1=(0,0) with radius r; C2 is centred at O2=(3,4) with radius R=5. Given C2 lies within C1 and min∣z1−z2∣=2. Target: max∣z1−z2∣.
O1=(0,0),O2=(3,4),R=5
Step 2:Compute the distance between centres.
d=32+42=25=5
Step 3:Apply the minimum-distance condition along the line joining the centres: min∣z1−z2∣=r−(d+R).
r−(5+5)=2⇒r=12
Step 4:Compute the maximum distance along the same line on the opposite side.
max∣z1−z2∣=r+d+R=12+5+5=22
Step 5:min+max=2r for two such circles, giving 2+22=24=2(12), which is consistent.
2+22=24=2r
Step 6:The maximum distance equals 22, matching option (3).
max∣z1−z2∣=22
Final answer: max∣z1−z2∣=22
Q3Single correctMatrices and Determinants
If the system of equations x+5y+6z=4,2x+3y+4z=7,x+6y+az=b has infinitely many solutions, then the point (a, b) lies on the line
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2x−y=3
Approach:
Impose the consistency conditions for infinitely many solutions: the coefficient determinant and any one substitution determinant must vanish; solve them to obtain a and b, then check the candidate lines.
Step 1:Coefficient matrix A=12153664a with RHS (4,7,b). Target: (a,b).
Step 7:Substitute (a,b)=(50/7,29/7) into x−y=3: 50/7−29/7=3, identity holds. The other candidates fail.
750−729=3✓
Step 8:The point (a,b) lies on x−y=3, matching option (2).
x−y=3
Final answer: (a,b) lies on x−y=3
Q4Single correctSequence and Series
Let a1,a2,a3,… be an A.P. and g1=a1,g2,g3,… be an increasing G.P. If a1=a2+g2=1 and a3+g3=4, then a10+g5 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 455
Approach:
Parametrise the A.P. and G.P. with a1=g1=1, common difference d, common ratio r; reduce the two given conditions to a quadratic in r, pick the increasing-GP root, then evaluate a10+g5.
Step 1:A.P. has a1=1 and common difference d, so an=1+(n−1)d. G.P. has g1=1 and common ratio r>0 with r>1 for an increasing G.P., so gn=rn−1. Target: a10+g5.
an=1+(n−1)d,gn=rn−1
Step 2:Use a2+g2=1 with a2=1+d and g2=r.
(1+d)+r=1⇒d=−r
Step 3:Use a3+g3=4 with a3=1+2d and g3=r2, and substitute d=−r.
1+2d+r2=4⇒1−2r+r2=4⇒r2−2r−3=0
Step 4:Factorise the quadratic.
(r−3)(r+1)=0⇒r=3orr=−1
Step 5:For an increasing G.P. starting at 1 require r>1, so r=3 and hence d=−3.
r=3,d=−3
Step 6:Compute a10 and g5 and add them.
a10=1+9(−3)=−26;g5=34=81;a10+g5=−26+81=55
Step 7:Substitute back into the given condition a3+g3=(1+2(−3))+32=−5+9=4, matching the problem statement.
a3+g3=−5+9=4✓
Step 8:Hence a10+g5=55, matching option (4).
a10+g5=55
Final answer: a10+g5=55
Q5Single correctSequence and Series
The sum 113+1+313+23+1+3+513+23+33+… up to 8 terms, is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 271
Approach:
Simplify the general term using the closed forms for the sum of cubes and the sum of the first n odd numbers, then sum to n=8.
Step 1:The nth term is tn=1+3+5+⋯+(2n−1)13+23+⋯+n3. Target: S8=∑n=18tn.
Step 4:Substitute n=8. Here ∑k=18k2=204,∑k=18k=36.
S8=41(204+2⋅36+8)=41(204+72+8)=4284=71
Step 5:Direct check of tn values 1,9/4,4,25/4,9,49/4,16,81/4 sums to (4+9+16+25+36+49+64+81)/4=284/4=71.
∑tn=4284=71✓
Step 6:S8=71, matching option (2).
S8=71
Final answer: S8=71
Q6Single correctBinomial Theorem
If for 3≤r≤30, (30−r30)+3(31−r30)+3(32−r30)+(33−r30)=(rm), then m equals:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 333
Approach:
Use the symmetry (30−k30)=(k30) to rewrite each term as (r−j30) for j=0,1,2,3; the coefficients 1,3,3,1 identify the sum as the Vandermonde convolution of (1+x)3 with (1+x)30.
Step 1:Given L=(30−r30)+3(31−r30)+3(32−r30)+(33−r30) for 3≤r≤30. Target: integer m with L=(rm).
L=∑j=03(j3)(30+j−r30)
Step 2:Apply symmetry (30+j−r30)=(r−j30) to each term.
Let Pn denote the total number of triangles formed by joining the vertices of an n-sided regular polygon. If Pn+1−Pn=66, then the sum of all distinct prime divisors of n is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 35
Approach:
Express Pn=(3n) and use Pascal's identity (3n+1)−(3n)=(2n) to solve for n, then list the distinct prime divisors.
Step 1:Pn=(3n) counts triangles from n polygon vertices. Given Pn+1−Pn=66. Target: sum of distinct prime divisors of n.
Step 4:Factorise n=12=22⋅3; distinct primes are {2,3}.
12=22⋅3
Step 5:Sum the distinct primes.
2+3=5
Step 6:Check P13−P12=(313)−(312)=286−220=66, matching the given condition.
286−220=66✓
Step 7:The sum of all distinct prime divisors of n=12 is 5, matching option (3).
2+3=5
Final answer: Sum of distinct prime divisors of n is 5
Q8Single correctStatistics and Probability
A man throws a fair coin repeatedly. He gets 10 points for each head he throws and 5 points for each tail he throws. If the probability that he gets exactly 30 points is nm,gcd(m,n)=1, then m+n is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3107
Approach:
Find all (h,t) pairs with 10h+5t=30, count the orderings of each composition, weight by (1/2)h+t, and add. Since each ordering corresponds to a distinct sample path that achieves exactly 30 as a partial sum, this gives the required probability.
Step 1:Let h = number of heads, t = number of tails so far. Each head adds 10, each tail adds 5, so a total of 30 requires 10h+5t=30, i.e. 2h+t=6. Target: P(total reaches 30).
Step 3:For each (h,t) count the orderings ending with the toss that brings the total to 30. Since every ordering of h heads and t tails attains the total exactly at the final toss of that block, the probability contribution is (hh+t)(1/2)h+t.
Step 6:Since 43 is prime and does not divide 64=26, gcd(43,64)=1, so m=43,n=64.
m=43,n=64
Step 7:Cross-check via recursion qk=21qk−5+21qk−10 with q0=1, qk=0 for k<0: q5=1/2,q10=3/4,q15=5/8,q20=11/16,q25=21/32,q30=21(21/32)+21(11/16)=21/64+22/64=43/64, matching.
q30=6443✓
Step 8:Hence m+n=43+64=107, matching option (3).
m+n=107
Final answer: m+n=107
Q9Single correctStatistics and Probability
The mean and variance of n observations are 8 and 16, respectively. If the sum of the first (n−1) observations is 48 and the sum of squares of the first (n−1) observations is 496, then the value of n is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 47
Approach:
Translate mean and variance into sums, isolate xn, then reduce to a quadratic in n.
Step 1:Let the n observations be x1,x2,…,xn with ∑i=1n−1xi=48 and ∑i=1n−1xi2=496.
xˉ=8,σ2=16
Step 2:Mean gives ∑xi=8n, so xn=8n−48.
xn=8n−48=8(n−6)
Step 3:Variance gives ∑xi2=n(σ2+xˉ2)=n(16+64)=80n and ∑xi2=496+xn2.
80n=496+64(n−6)2
Step 4:Multiply out and simplify the quadratic.
64n2−848n+2800=0⇒4n2−53n+175=0
Step 5:Solve using the quadratic formula; discriminant =532−4⋅4⋅175=2809−2800=9.
n=853±3=7 or 425
Step 6:The valid number of observations is n=7.
n=7
Final answer: n=7
Q10Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let a circle pass through the origin and its centre be the point of intersection of two mutually perpendicular lines x+(k−1)y+3=0 and 2x+k2y−4=0. If the line x−y+2=0 intersects the circle at the points A and B, then (AB)2 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 318
Approach:
Use perpendicularity of the two lines to fix k, find their intersection (the centre), compute the radius from the origin, and apply the chord-length formula.
Step 1:Slope of x+(k−1)y+3=0 is m1=−k−11 and slope of 2x+k2y−4=0 is m2=−k22.
Step 3:Substitute k=−1: the lines become x−2y+3=0 and 2x+y−4=0. Solve to get the centre.
y=4−2x,x−2(4−2x)+3=0⇒x=1,y=2
Step 4:Circle passes through origin, so radius equals ∣OC∣.
r=12+22=5
Step 5:Perpendicular distance from C(1,2) to chord x−y+2=0.
d=2∣1−2+2∣=21
Step 6:Apply chord-length formula.
AB2=4(r2−d2)=4(5−21)=18
Step 7:The square of chord length is 18.
(AB)2=18
Final answer: (AB)2=18
Q11Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
Let O be the origin, and P and Q be two points on the rectangular hyperbola xy=12 such that the mid point of the line segment PQ is (21,−21). Then the area of the triangle OPQ equals:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 327
Approach:
Use the mid-point chord identity T=S1 to obtain the chord line, find its intersections with xy=12, and compute the triangle area.
Step 1:Midpoint is (h,k)=(21,−21) on the hyperbola xy=12.
xk+yh=2hk
Step 2:Plug in to get −2x+2y=2⋅21⋅(−21)=−21, i.e. x−y=1.
x−y=1
Step 3:Substitute x=y+1 into xy=12.
(y+1)y=12⇒y2+y−12=0
Step 4:Compute intersection points P and Q.
P=(4,3),Q=(−3,−4)
Step 5:Midpoint of P and Q is (24−3,23−4)=(21,−21) .
M=(21,−21)
Step 6:Area of △OPQ using the origin-vertex formula.
Area=21∣4(−4)−(−3)(3)∣=21∣−16+9∣=27
Final answer: 27
Q12Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
Let the parabola y=x2+px+q passing through the point (1,−1) be such that the distance between its vertex and the x-axis is minimum. Then the value of p2+q2 is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 24
Approach:
Use the point on the parabola to relate p and q, reduce vertex distance to a single-variable function in p, and minimise.
Step 4:Domain restriction tan2θ=1 excludes θ=4π+2nπ, where sin22θ=1. Together with sec2θ defined (i.e. cos2θ=0, also sin22θ=1), the achievable range is sin22θ∈[0,1).
sin22θ∈[0,1)
Step 5:Therefore E(θ)=a2∈(1,2].
1<a2≤2
Step 6:The only integer satisfying 1<a2≤2 would need a2=2, but 2∈/Z, so no integer a works.
a2=2⇒a∈/Z
Step 7:The set S is empty, so n(S)=0.
n(S)=0
Final answer: 0
Q14Single correctVector Algebra
Let the vectors a=−i^+j^+3k^ and b=i^+3j^+k^. For some λ,μ∈R, let c=λa+μb. If c⋅(3i^−6j^+2k^)=10 and c⋅(i^+j^+k^)=−2, then ∣c∣2 is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 212
Approach:
Convert the two dot-product conditions into a linear system in λ,μ via linearity, solve, then compute ∣c∣2.
Step 1:Take u=3i^−6j^+2k^ and v=i^+j^+k^.
c⋅u=10,c⋅v=−2
Step 2:Compute a⋅u=(−1)(3)+(1)(−6)+(3)(2)=−3 and b⋅u=(1)(3)+(3)(−6)+(1)(2)=−13.
−3λ−13μ=10
Step 3:Compute a⋅v=−1+1+3=3 and b⋅v=1+3+1=5.
3λ+5μ=−2
Step 4:Add both equations to eliminate λ: −8μ=8⇒μ=−1, then 3λ−5=−2⇒λ=1.
λ=1,μ=−1
Step 5:Form c=a−b.
c=(−1−1,1−3,3−1)=−2i^−2j^+2k^
Step 6:Check c⋅u=−6+12+4=10 and c⋅v=−2−2+2=−2, both consistent.
c⋅u=10,c⋅v=−2
Step 7:Magnitude squared.
∣c∣2=4+4+4=12
Final answer: 12
Q15Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
Let the point A be the foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P(a,b,0) on the line 2x−1=1y−2=3z−α. If the mid point of the line segment PA is (0,43,−41), then the value of a2+b2+α2 is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11
Approach:
Parameterise A on the line, apply the midpoint formula to express a,b,α in terms of the parameter r, then enforce PA⋅d=0 to solve.
Step 1:Let A=(1+2r,2+r,α+3r) on the line; direction d=(2,1,3) and P=(a,b,0).
A=(1+2r,2+r,α+3r)
Step 2:Midpoint conditions give a+1+2r=0, b+2+r=23, α+3r=−21.
a=−1−2r,b=−21−r,α=−21−3r
Step 3:Compute PA=(1+2r−a,2+r−b,α+3r). Substitute the relations: 1+2r−a=2+4r, 2+r−b=25+2r, α+3r=−21.
Step 6:A=(1−1,2−21,1−23)=(0,23,−21); midpoint of P(0,0,0) and A is (0,43,−41), matching.
M=(0,43,−41)
Step 7:Compute the required sum.
a2+b2+α2=0+0+1=1
Final answer: 1
Q16Single correctVector Algebra
Two adjacent sides of a parallelogram PQRS are given by PQ=j^+k^ and PS=i^−j^. If the side PS is rotated about the point P by an acute angle α in the plane of the parallelogram so that it becomes perpendicular to the side PQ, then sin2(25α)−sin2(2α) is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 223
Approach:
Find the angle between PQ and PS using the dot product, determine the rotation α that makes them perpendicular, then evaluate the trig expression via sin2A−sin2B=sin(A+B)sin(A−B).
Step 3:Evaluate ∫0π/21dx=2π and ∫0π/2sin22xdx=4π.
∫0π/2f(x)dx=2π−21⋅4π=83π
Step 4:Multiply by the number of periods.
I=40⋅83π=15π
Step 5:Total integral equals 15π.
∫020π(sin4x+cos4x)dx=15π
Final answer: 15π
Q18Single correctLimit, Continuity and Differentiability
Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 and have extrema at x=1 and x=−1. If x→0lim(x3f(x))=−5, then f(2)−f(−2) is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4112
Approach:
Use the finite-limit condition to fix the low-order coefficients of the degree-5 polynomial, then impose the extrema conditions to solve for the remaining coefficients and compute the required difference.
Step 1:From x→0limx3f(x)=−5 the coefficients of x0,x1,x2 in f vanish and the coefficient of x3 equals −5, so the degree-5 polynomial has the form below.
f(x)=ax5+bx4−5x3
Step 2:Differentiate and impose extrema conditions f′(1)=0 and f′(−1)=0.
f′(x)=5ax4+4bx3−15x2⇒5a+4b−15=0,5a−4b−15=0
Step 3:Solve the simultaneous equations.
Adding: 10a=30⇒a=3;Subtracting: 8b=0⇒b=0
Step 4:Evaluate f at x=±2 using the fact that f is an odd function.
f(2)=3(32)−5(8)=96−40=56;f(−2)=−f(2)=−56
Step 5:Compute the required difference.
f(2)−f(−2)=56−(−56)=112
Final answer: 112
Q19Single correctIntegral Calculus
Let f(x)=∫(x2+2x−1516x+24)dx. If f(4)=14loge(3) and f(7)=loge(2α⋅3β),α,β∈N, then α+β is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 339
Approach:
Split the numerator into the derivative of the denominator plus a constant, integrate via a log term and partial fractions, fix the constant from f(4), then evaluate f(7) and identify α,β.
Step 1:Write the numerator as A(2x+2)+B where 2x+2 is the derivative of x2+2x−15. Matching coefficients gives A=8,B=8.
16x+24=8(2x+2)+8
Step 2:Split the integral into the log-derivative piece and the constant-numerator piece, then use partial fractions on the second piece.
Let x=x(y) be the solution of the differential equation 2y2dydx−2xy+x2=0,y>1,x(e)=e. Then x(e2) is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 232e2
Approach:
Recognise the Bernoulli form in x(y), substitute t=1/x to linearise, solve via integrating factor, fix the constant from x(e)=e, then evaluate at y=e2.
Step 1:Divide the given ODE by 2y2 to put it in standard Bernoulli form.
dydx−yx+2y2x2=0
Step 2:Divide by x2 and substitute t=1/x (so dt/dy=−x−2dx/dy).
−dydt−yt+2y21=0⇒dydt+yt=2y21
Step 3:Integrating factor is e∫dy/y=y. Multiply through.
Let A={2,3,4,5,6}. Let R be a relation on the set A×A given by (x, y) R (z, w) if and only if x divides z and y≤w. Then the number of elements in R is
SolutionAnswer: 120
Approach:
Decouple the two independent constraints: count ordered pairs (x,z) with x∣z in A, and ordered pairs (y,w) with y≤w in A, then multiply.
Step 1:The conditions x∣z (in the first coordinate) and y≤w (in the second coordinate) are independent, so ∣R∣ factorises.
∣R∣=Nx∣z⋅Ny≤w
Step 2:For each x∈A, count multiples of x lying in A={2,3,4,5,6}: 2→{2,4,6} gives 3; 3→{3,6} gives 2; 4→{4}, 5→{5}, 6→{6} each give 1.
Nx∣z=3+2+1+1+1=8
Step 3:With n=∣A∣=5, the number of ordered pairs (y,w) satisfying y≤w equals (25)+5=15.
Ny≤w=25⋅6=15
Step 4:Multiply the independent counts.
∣R∣=8×15=120
Step 5:The relation has 120 ordered pairs.
∣R∣=120
Final answer: 120
Q22NumericalMatrices and Determinants
Consider the matrices A=[24−2−2] and B=[3193]. If matrices P and Q are such that PA=B and AQ=B, then the absolute value of the sum of the diagonal elements of 2(P+Q) is ..........
SolutionAnswer: 34
Approach:
Invert A, set P=BA−1 and Q=A−1B, compute each matrix, then form 2(P+Q) and take the absolute value of its trace.
Let A be the point (3,0) and circles with variable diameter AB touch the circle x2+y2=36 internally. Let the curve C be the locus of the point B. If the eccentricity of C is e, then 72e2 is equal to ..........
SolutionAnswer: 18
Approach:
Translate internal tangency between the variable circle (diameter AB) and the fixed circle of radius 6 into a focal-distance relation; the resulting locus is an ellipse from which e is read off.
Step 1:Let B=(x,y). The variable circle has centre M at the midpoint of AB and radius ∣AB∣/2. Internal tangency to x2+y2=36 (centre O, radius 6) requires ∣OM∣=6−∣AB∣/2.
(2x+3)2+(2y)2=6−21(x−3)2+y2
Step 2:Multiply both sides by 2.
(x+3)2+y2+(x−3)2+y2=12
Step 3:This is the locus definition of an ellipse with foci S′=(−3,0) and S=(3,0) and major-axis length 2a=12.
2a=12⇒a=6;∣SS′∣=6⇒2ae=6⇒ae=3
Step 4:Compute the eccentricity.
e=aae=63=21
Step 5:Compute 72e2.
72e2=72⋅41=18
Final answer: 18
Q24NumericalIntegral Calculus
If the area of the region bounded by 16x2−9y2=144 and 8x−3y=24 is A, then 3(A+6loge(3)) is equal to ..........
SolutionAnswer: 24
Approach:
Convert the hyperbola to standard form, find intersection of the line with the right branch, integrate the difference between the upper hyperbola arc and the line from x=3 to x=5, then substitute into the requested expression.
Step 1:Divide 16x2−9y2=144 by 144 to obtain the standard form.
9x2−16y2=1
Step 2:Find intersection of the line 8x−3y=24 with the hyperbola. From the line, 3y=8x−24, so 9y2=(8x−24)2, while from the hyperbola 9y2=16x2−144. Equating gives (8x−24)2=16x2−144.
Step 3:For x∈[3,5] on the right branch, the upper arc is yH=34x2−9 and the line gives yL=38x−24. Comparing at x=4 shows yH=347≈3.53>38≈2.67=yL, so the hyperbola is the upper boundary.
Step 7:Evaluate the requested expression 3(A+6ln3).
3(A+6ln3)=3((8−6ln3)+6ln3)=3⋅8=24
Final answer: 24
Q25NumericalLimit, Continuity and Differentiability
The number of points in the interval [2,4] at which the function f(x)=[x2−x−21], where [⋅] denotes the greatest integer function, is discontinuous, is ..........
SolutionAnswer: 10
Approach:
Let g(x)=x2−x−21. Since g is strictly increasing on [2,4], f=[g] is discontinuous exactly at the unique preimages of integers lying strictly inside g([2,4]); count those integers.
Step 1:Set g(x)=x2−x−21 and compute the endpoint values on [2,4].
g(2)=4−2−21=23;g(4)=16−4−21=223
Step 2:g′(x)=2x−1>0 on [2,4], so g is strictly increasing and continuous; therefore g takes each integer in its range at exactly one interior point.
g′(x)=2x−1≥3>0∀x∈[2,4]
Step 3:Count integers n with 23<n<223 (endpoints g(2),g(4) are non-integer so the boundary x∈{2,4} contributes nothing). The integers are 2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11.
n∈{2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11}
Step 4:At each such level n there is a unique xn∈(2,4) with g(xn)=n; at xn the function [g] jumps from n−1 to n, so f is discontinuous there.
#{discontinuities of f}=#{n∈Z:23<n<223}=10
Step 5:The function is discontinuous at 10 points of [2,4].
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2026 April 02, Shift 2 paper?
The JEE Main 2026 April 02, Shift 2 paper has 75 questions — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (25). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
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