JEE Main 2026 January 23, Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions
All 75 questions from the JEE Main 2026 (January 23, Shift 2) shift — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (25) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
A body of mass 14 kg initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments of masses in the ratio 2:2:3. The two pieces of equal masses fly off perpendicular to each other with a speed of 18 m/s each. The velocity of the heavier fragment is.. m/s
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1122
Approach:
Given a 14 kg body at rest splitting in the ratio 2:2:3, with the two equal fragments moving at 18 m/s perpendicular to each other, the target is the speed of the heavier fragment. Total linear momentum is conserved and remains zero, so the heavy fragment carries momentum equal and opposite to the resultant of the two light fragments.
Step 1:Distribute the 14 kg mass in the ratio 2:2:3.
m=2+2+314=2kg per part⇒4,4,6kg
Step 2:Compute the momentum magnitude of each 4 kg fragment.
p1=p2=4×18=72kg m/s
Step 3:Add the two perpendicular momenta to find their resultant magnitude.
p12=722+722=722kg m/s
Step 4:The 6 kg fragment carries momentum that cancels this resultant, keeping the total zero.
6V=722⇒V=122m/s
Final answer: 122 m/s
Q27Single correctElectrostatics
A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 mm is charged by a battery. On introducing a mica sheet of 2mm and maintaining the connections of the plates with the terminals of the battery, It is found that it draws 25% more charge from the battery. The dielectric constant of mica is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 42.0
Approach:
Given a capacitor of gap d=5 mm kept connected to the battery while a mica slab of thickness t=2 mm is inserted, drawing 25% more charge, the target is the dielectric constant K. At fixed voltage the charge is proportional to capacitance, so the capacitance ratio equals 1.25.
Step 1:Relate the charge ratio at constant voltage to the capacitance ratio.
QQ′=CC′=1.25
Step 2:Form the capacitance ratio with slab thickness t=2 mm in gap d=5 mm.
CC′=d−t+Ktd=5−2+K25=3+K25
Step 3:Isolate the denominator.
3+K2=1.255=4
Step 4:Solve for the dielectric constant K.
K=12=2
Final answer: 2.0
Q28Single correctThermodynamics
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas expands from volume V to 2V isothermally at a temperature 27∘C and does W joule of work. If the gas undergoes same magnitude of expansion adiabatically from 27∘C doing the same amount of work W, the its final temperature will be (close to) (ln2=0.693)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2−56
Approach:
Given one mole of a diatomic gas expanding isothermally from V to 2V at 300 K doing work W, then doing the same W adiabatically from 300 K, the target is the final adiabatic temperature. The isothermal work fixes W; the adiabatic work equals the drop in internal energy.
Step 1:Write the isothermal work at 300 K for one mole expanding to twice the volume.
W=R×300×ln2=R×300×0.693
Step 2:Express the adiabatic work as the decrease in internal energy of the diatomic gas.
W=25R(300−Tf)
Step 3:Equate the two expressions for W and cancel R.
300×0.693=25(300−Tf)
Step 4:Solve for the final temperature in kelvin.
300−Tf=2.5207.9=83.16⇒Tf=216.84K
Step 5:Convert to degrees Celsius.
Tf=216.84−273=−56.16∘C
Final answer: −56∘C
Q29Single correctOptics
A prism of angle 75∘ and refractive index 3 is coated with thin film of refractive index 1.5 only at the back exit surface. To have total internal reflection at the back exit surface the incident angle must be.... (sin15∘=0.25 and sin25∘=0.43)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3between 15∘ and 20∘
Approach:
Given a prism of apex angle A=75∘ and refractive index 3, with a film of index 1.5 on the back exit face, the target is the incidence angle range that produces total internal reflection there. TIR requires the internal angle r2 at the back face to reach the critical angle for the glass-film boundary, which fixes the limiting entry refraction angle r1 and hence the limiting incidence.
Step 1:Find the critical angle at the back surface for the glass-film boundary.
sinθc=31.5=23⇒θc=60∘
Step 2:Apply the prism angle relation at the TIR threshold.
r1=A−r2=75∘−60∘=15∘
Step 3:Use Snell's law at the entry face with the limiting r1.
sini=3sin15∘=3×0.25=43=0.433
Step 4:Decreasing i lowers r1 and raises r2 above 60∘, so TIR persists for all incidence angles below the threshold.
i≤25.7∘⇒r2≥60∘
Final answer: between 15∘ and 20∘
Q30Single correctOptics
When an unpolarised light falls at a particular angle on a glass plate (placed in air), it is observed that the reflected beam is linearly polarized. The angle of refracted beam with respect to the normal is... (tan−1(1.52)=57.7∘), refractive indices of air and glass are 1.00 and 1.52 respectively.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 332.3∘
Approach:
Given that reflected light from a glass plate (n=1.52 in air) is fully linearly polarized at a particular incidence, the target is the refraction angle. Full polarization occurs only at the Brewster angle, where the reflected and refracted rays are mutually perpendicular, making the refraction angle the complement of the Brewster angle.
Step 1:Find the Brewster (polarizing) angle from the index ratio.
tanip=1.001.52=1.52⇒ip=57.7∘
Step 2:Apply the perpendicularity of reflected and refracted rays at the Brewster angle.
r=90∘−ip=90∘−57.7∘
Final answer: 32.3∘
Q31Single correctLaws of Motion
A block is sliding down on an inclined plane of slope θ and at an instant t=0 this block is given an upward momentum so that it starts moving up on the inclined surface with velocity u. The distance (S) travelled by the block before its velocity become zero, is... (g=gravitational acceleration)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 14gsinθu2
Approach:
Given a block that slides down a rough incline of slope θ and is then projected up with speed u, the target is the distance S travelled before stopping. Spontaneous sliding down sets the limiting condition μcosθ=sinθ, so during upward motion both gravity and friction retard the block, doubling the gravitational deceleration.
Step 1:Spontaneous downward sliding sets the limiting balance of friction and the gravity component along the incline.
μmgcosθ=mgsinθ⇒μcosθ=sinθ
Step 2:During upward motion gravity and friction both act down the incline; add their decelerations.
a=gsinθ+μgcosθ=gsinθ+gsinθ=2gsinθ
Step 3:Apply the kinematic equation from speed u to rest.
0=u2−2(2gsinθ)S
Step 4:Solve for the distance S.
S=4gsinθu2
Final answer: 4gsinθu2
Q32Single correctMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The current passing through a conducting loop in the form of equilateral triangle of side 43 cm is 2A. The magnetic field at its centroid is α×10−5T. The value of α is...(given μ0=4π×10−7 SI units)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 233
Approach:
Given an equilateral triangular loop of side L=43 cm carrying I=2 A, the target is the coefficient α in the centroid field α×10−5 T. Each side is a finite straight wire at perpendicular distance a=L/(23) from the centroid, subtending 60∘ on each side; the three identical contributions add.
Step 1:Find the perpendicular distance from the centroid to a side for L=43 cm.
a=2343=2cm=0.02m
Step 2:Each side subtends 60∘ on both sides of the foot of perpendicular at the centroid.
sinα1+sinα2=sin60∘+sin60∘=3
Step 3:Write the field contributed by one side.
B1=4πaμ0I3=10−7×0.022×3=3×10−5T
Step 4:Three sides contribute equally in the same direction and add.
B=3B1=33×10−5T
Final answer: 33
Q33Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
A small metallic sphere of diameter 2 mm and density 10.5 g/cm3 is dropped in glycerine having viscosity 10 Poise and density 1.5 g/cm3 respectively. The terminal velocity attained by the sphere is...cm/s. (π=722 and g=10 m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22.0
Approach:
Given a sphere of diameter 2 mm, density 10.5 g/cm3, dropped in glycerine of viscosity 10 Poise and density 1.5 g/cm3, the target is the terminal velocity. At terminal velocity the net force is zero, so weight balances buoyancy plus Stokes drag, giving the standard terminal-velocity formula evaluated in SI units and converted to cm/s.
Step 1:Convert all quantities to SI units (diameter 2 mm gives radius 1 mm).
r=10−3m,ρs=10500,ρl=1500kg/m3,η=10Poise=1Pa s
Step 2:Substitute into the terminal-velocity formula.
vt=92×1(10−3)2×(10500−1500)×10
Step 3:Evaluate the numerical value.
vt=92×0.09=0.02m/s
Step 4:Convert to cm/s.
vt=0.02m/s=2cm/s
Final answer: 2.0 cm/s
Q34Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
A circular loop of radius 7 cm is placed in uniform magnetic field of 0.2T directed perpendicular to plane of loop. The loop is converted into a square loop in 0.5s. The EMF induced in the loop is...mV
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21.32
Approach:
Given a circular loop of radius 7 cm in a perpendicular field of 0.2 T reshaped into a square in 0.5 s, the target is the induced emf. The wire perimeter is conserved, fixing the square's side; the resulting area change alters the flux, and the induced emf equals the magnitude of the flux-change rate.
Step 1:Equate the circle's circumference to the square's perimeter to find the side.
2×722×7=4l⇒44=4l⇒l=11cm
Step 2:Compute the two enclosed areas.
Asq=l2=121cm2,Acir=πr2=722×49=154cm2
Step 3:Find the magnitude of the area change.
∣ΔA∣=∣121−154∣=33cm2=33×10−4m2
Step 4:Apply Faraday's law with B=0.2 T over Δt=0.5 s.
E=0.50.2×33×10−4=1.32×10−3V
Final answer: 1.32 mV
Q35Single correctUnits and Measurements
To compare EMF of two cells using potentiometer the balancing lengths obtained are 200cm and 150cm. The least count of scale is 1cm. The percentage error in the ratio of EMFs is...
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11.75
Approach:
Given potentiometer balancing lengths L1=200 cm and L2=150 cm with scale least count 1 cm, the target is the percentage error in the emf ratio. The emf ratio equals the length ratio; for a quotient the fractional errors add, each length carrying an uncertainty of one least count.
Step 1:Take each length uncertainty equal to the least count, 1 cm.
ΔL1=ΔL2=1cm
Step 2:Add the fractional errors for the ratio.
xΔx=2001+1501=0.005+0.00667
Step 3:Express as a percentage.
xΔx×100=(0.5+0.667)%=1.17%
Final answer: 1.17%
Q36Single correctThermodynamics
The internal energy of a monoatomic gas is 3nRT. One mole of helium is kept in a cylinder having internal cross section area of 17cm2 and fitted with a light movable frictionless piston. The gas is heated slowly by supplying 126J heat. If the temperature rises by 4∘C, then the piston will move ...cm. (Atmospheric pressure =105 Pa)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 315.5
Approach:
Given one mole of helium with internal energy 3nRT, in a cylinder of cross section 17 cm2 with a light frictionless piston, heated by 126 J for a 4 K rise, the target is the piston displacement. The piston keeps the pressure at atmospheric (isobaric), so the first law splits the heat into the internal-energy change and the constant-pressure work PAΔx.
Step 1:Compute the internal-energy change for one mole with a 4 K rise.
ΔU=3nRΔT=3×1×8.31×4=99.7J≈100J
Step 2:Apply the first law to find the work done by the gas.
ΔW=ΔQ−ΔU=126−100=26J
Step 3:Equate the isobaric work to PAΔx.
105×17×10−4×Δx=26⇒170Δx=26
Step 4:Solve for the piston displacement.
Δx=17026=0.153m≈15.5cm
Final answer: 15.5 cm
Q37Single correctElectrostatics
Two shorts dipoles (A,B), A having charges ±2μC and length 1cm and B having charges ±4μC and length 1cm are placed with their centres 80cm apart as shown in the figure. The electric field at a point P, equi-distant from the centres of both dipoles is..........N/C.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21692×104
Approach:
Given short dipole A (±2μC, 1 cm, aligned along the centre line) and dipole B (±4μC, 1 cm, perpendicular to it), centres 80 cm apart with P at the midpoint, the target is the field at P. From the figure P lies on the axial line of A and the equatorial line of B, so the two contributions are perpendicular and combine as a resultant.
Step 1:Find the two dipole moments and the common distance from each centre to P.
A paratrooper jumps from an aeroplane and opens a parachute after 2s of free fall and starts deaccelerating with 3m/s2. At 10m height from ground, while descending with the help of parachute, the speed of paratrooper is 5m/s. The initial height of the airplane is...m. (g=10m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 192.5
Approach:
Given a 2 s free fall, then deceleration at 3 m/s2 until the speed is 5 m/s at 10 m above ground, the target is the airplane height. The motion has three vertical segments: free-fall length h1, deceleration-phase length h2, and the final 10 m; their sum is the height.
Step 1:Free fall for 2 s gives the speed at parachute opening.
v1=10×2=20m/s
Step 2:Distance covered during the 2 s free fall.
h1=21×10×22=20m
Step 3:Apply the velocity-squared relation through the deceleration phase from 20 m/s to 5 m/s at a=3 m/s2 retarding.
52−202=2(−3)h2⇒−375=−6h2⇒h2=62.5m
Step 4:Add the three vertical segments.
H=h1+h2+10=20+62.5+10
Final answer: 92.5 m
Q39Single correctKinetic Theory of Gases
An air bubble of volume 2.9cm3 rises from the bottom of a swimming pool of 5m deep. At the bottom of the pool water temperature is 17∘C. The volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface, where the water temperature is 27∘C, is .....cm3. (g=10m/s2, density of water =103kg/m3. And 1 atm pressure is 105 Pa)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 34.5
Approach:
Given an air bubble of volume V1=2.9 cm3 at the pool bottom (depth h=5 m, T1=290 K) rising to the surface (T2=300 K), with g=10 m/s2, ρ=103 kg/m3, P0=105 Pa. The target is the surface volume V2, obtained by applying the combined gas law between the two states.
Step 1:Compute the absolute pressure at the bottom of the pool.
P1=105+103×10×5=105+0.5×105=1.5×105Pa
Step 2:State the surface conditions and the two absolute temperatures.
P2=105Pa,T1=17+273=290K,T2=27+273=300K
Step 3:Rearrange the combined gas law for the surface volume.
V2=V1P2P1T1T2=2.9×1051.5×105×290300
Step 4:Evaluate the numerical product.
V2=4.35×1.0345=4.50cm3
Final answer: 4.5
Q40Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
Suppose a long solenoid of 100cm length, radius 2cm having 500turns per unit length, carries a current I=10sin(ωt) A, where ω=1000 rad/s. A circular conducting loop (B) of radius 1cm coaxially slided through the solenoid at a speed v=1cm/s. The r.m.s current through the loop when the coil B is inserted 10cm inside the solenoid is 2αμA. The value of α is...[Resistance of the loop =10Ω]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3197
Approach:
Given a long solenoid with n=500 turns/m carrying I=10sin(ωt) A, ω=1000 rad/s, with a coaxial loop of radius r=1 cm =10−2 m and resistance R=10Ω inside it. Inside a long solenoid the field is uniform, so the flux linking the small loop is independent of axial position; the time-varying current induces an emf whose peak gives the peak current, and its rms value fixes α.
Step 1:Write the uniform solenoid field with n=500 per metre.
B=(4π×10−7)(500)(10sinωt)=2π×10−3sinωt
Step 2:Compute the flux through the loop of radius 10−2 m; the field is uniform so position inside the solenoid is irrelevant.
ϕ=Bπr2=2π×10−3×π(10−2)2sinωt=2π2×10−7sinωt
Step 3:Differentiate the flux to obtain the peak emf with ω=1000 rad/s.
ε=dtdϕ=2π2×10−7×1000cosωt=2π2×10−4cosωt
Step 4:Divide by R=10Ω for the peak current and identify α from Irms=α/2μA.
I0=Rε0=102π2×10−4=2π2×10−5A=197.4μA
Final answer: 197
Q41Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
Which of the following pair of nuclei are isobars of the element ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 113H and 23He
Approach:
Isobars are nuclei sharing the same mass number A while differing in atomic number Z. Each option's pair is tested against the conditions A1=A2 and Z1=Z2.
Step 1:Test pair 1.
13H:(A=3,Z=1),23He:(A=3,Z=2)
Step 2:Test pair 2.
12H:(A=2,Z=1),13H:(A=3,Z=1)
Step 3:Test pair 3.
80198Hg:(A=198),79197Au:(A=197)
Step 4:Test pair 4.
92236U:(A=236,Z=92),92238U:(A=238,Z=92)
Final answer: 13H and 23He
Q42Single correctKinematics
A bead P sliding on a frictionless semi-circular string (ACB) and it is at point S at t=0 and at this instant the horizontal component of its velocity is v. Another bead Q of the same mass as P is ejected from point A at t=0 along the horizontal string AB, with the speed v, friction between the beads and the respective strings may be neglected in both cases. Let tP and tQ be the respective times taken by beads P and Q to reach the point B, then the relation between tP and tQ is.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3tP<tQ
Approach:
Given bead P on the frictionless semicircular wire ACB (diameter AB horizontal, arc dipping below) starting at point S with horizontal velocity component v, and bead Q launched at A along the straight wire AB with speed v, both reaching B. Both beads cross the identical horizontal span AB; comparing their horizontal velocity components throughout the motion determines which arrival time is shorter.
Step 1:Bead Q travels the horizontal span AB at constant speed v along the straight wire.
tQ=vAB
Step 2:On the arc P dips below AB; by energy conservation its speed rises as it descends, so its horizontal velocity component stays at least v over the whole path.
vx,P(x)≥vfor all x∈[0,AB]
Step 3:Integrate the inverse horizontal speed over the common span AB for P and compare with Q.
tP=∫0ABvx,Pdx≤∫0ABvdx=vAB=tQ
Final answer: tP<tQ
Q43Single correctElectronic Devices
For the given logic gate circuit. Which of the following is the correct truth table?
Given a circuit where input n feeds one input of a final NAND gate directly, while n and m feed an OR gate whose output feeds the other NAND input. The output z=n⋅(n+m) is simplified by Boolean algebra and tabulated for all four (n,m) combinations to identify the matching truth table.
Step 1:Form the OR output and AND it with n inside the NAND.
z=n⋅(n+m)
Step 2:Apply the absorption law to the term inside the bar.
n(n+m)=n⋅n+n⋅m=n+nm=n
Step 3:The output reduces to the complement of n alone.
z=n
Step 4:Tabulate z=n over the four input rows.
(0,0)→1,(0,1)→1,(1,1)→0,(1,0)→0
Final answer: n | m | z | 0 | 0 | 1 | 0 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 1 | 0 | 0 |
Q44Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
The ratio of speeds of electromagnetic waves in vacuum and a medium, having dielectric constant k=3 and permeability of μ=2μ0 is. (μ0 = permeability of vacuum)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 16:1
Approach:
Given a medium with dielectric constant (relative permittivity) εr=k=3 and permeability μ=2μ0 so μr=2. The target is the ratio of the EM-wave speed in vacuum to that in the medium, obtained from the speed expression v=1/με.
Step 1:Form the speed ratio and substitute μ=μrμ0, ε=εrε0.
vc=1/με1/μ0ε0=μ0ε0με=μrεr
Step 2:Insert μr=2 and εr=3.
vc=2×3=6
Final answer: 6:1
Q45Single correctElectrostatics
Two charges 7μC and −2μC are placed at (-9,0,0) cm and (9,0,0) cm respectively in an external field E=r2Ar^, Where A=9×105 N/Cm2. Considering the potential at infinity to be 0, the electrostatic energy of the configuration is...J.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 349.3
Approach:
Given q1=7μC at (−9,0,0) cm and q2=−2μC at (9,0,0) cm in an external radial field of potential Vext=A/r with A=9×105N⋅m2/C. The total electrostatic energy is the mutual pair energy plus the energy of each charge in the external field, with the zero of potential at infinity.
Step 1:Compute the mutual energy using the separation d=0.18 m.
Step 2:Evaluate the external potential at each charge, both 0.09 m from the origin.
V=rA=0.099×105=107V
Step 3:Compute each charge's energy in the external field.
U1=(7×10−6)(107)=70J,U2=(−2×10−6)(107)=−20J
Step 4:Sum the mutual energy and both external-field energies.
U=U12+U1+U2=−0.7+70−20=49.3J
Final answer: 49.3
Q46NumericalRotational Motion
Suppose there is a uniform circular disc of mass M kg and radius r m shown in figure. The shaded regions are cut out from the disc. The moment of inertia of the remainder about the axis A of the disc is given by 256xMr2. The value of x is...
SolutionAnswer: 109
Approach:
Given a uniform disc of mass M and radius r with two circular holes, each of radius r/4 and centre at distance 3r/4 from the disc centre, cut out. The remainder's moment of inertia about the central axis A equals the full-disc value minus the two holes' contributions; each hole's mass scales with area and the parallel-axis theorem transfers its inertia to axis A.
Step 1:Moment of inertia of the intact disc about axis A through its centre.
Ifull=21Mr2=256128Mr2
Step 2:Each hole has mass M/16 and self moment of inertia about its own centre.
Icm=21⋅16M(4r)2=512Mr2
Step 3:Transfer each hole's inertia to axis A using d=3r/4; the angular placement does not enter since only the distance from the axis matters.
The size of the images of an object, formed by a thin lens are equal when the object is placed at two different positions 8cm and 24cm from the lens. The focal length of the lens is.........cm.
SolutionAnswer: 16
Approach:
Given a thin lens producing images of equal size when the object sits at u1=8 cm and u2=24 cm. Equal image sizes at two object distances mean the magnification magnitudes match with opposite signs (one real, one virtual); writing m in terms of f and the object distance yields an equation for f.
Step 1:Impose equal-magnitude, opposite-sign magnifications for the two object distances.
f−8f=−f−24f
Step 2:Cancel the common factor f and equate the reciprocals.
f−81=−f−241⇒f−24=−(f−8)
Step 3:Solve the linear equation for f.
2f=32⇒f=16cm
Final answer: 16
Q48NumericalOscillations and Waves
The velocity of sound in air is doubled when the temperature is raised from 0∘C to α∘C. The value of α is............
SolutionAnswer: 819
Approach:
Given the speed of sound in air doubling as the temperature rises from 0∘C (T1=273 K) to α∘C (T2=α+273 K). The speed of sound varies as the square root of absolute temperature, so the doubling condition fixes the temperature ratio and hence α.
Step 1:Apply the doubling condition with absolute temperatures.
2=273α+273
Step 2:Square both sides and clear the denominator.
4=273α+273⇒α+273=4×273=1092
Step 3:Solve for the final Celsius temperature.
α=1092−273=819
Final answer: 819
Q49NumericalAtoms and Nuclei
The average energy released per fission for the nucleus of 92235U is 190MeV. When all the atoms of 47g pure 92235U undergo fission process, the energy released is α×1023 MeV. The value of α is... (Avogadro number =6×1023 per mole)
SolutionAnswer: 228
Approach:
Given 190 MeV released per fission of 92235U, molar mass 235 g/mol, mass 47 g, and NA=6×1023 per mole. The number of nuclei follows from the mole concept; multiplying by the per-fission energy gives the total, matched to α×1023 MeV.
Step 1:Find the number of moles in 47 g of U-235.
n=23547=0.2mol
Step 2:Convert moles to number of nuclei.
N=0.2×6×1023=1.2×1023
Step 3:Multiply by the energy released per fission.
E=(1.2×1023)×190=228×1023MeV
Step 4:Compare with the form α×1023 MeV.
α=228
Final answer: 228
Q50NumericalUnits and Measurements
A ball of radius r and density ρ dropped through a viscous liquid of density σ and viscosity η attains its terminal velocity at time t, given by t=Aρarbηcσd, where A is a constant and a,b,c and d are integers. The value of a+db+c is.
SolutionAnswer: 1
Approach:
Given the terminal-velocity time t=Aρarbηcσd with A dimensionless and integer exponents. Dimensional homogeneity requires the product of powers of [ρ],[r],[η],[σ] to reduce to [T]; matching the powers of mass, length and time yields a,b,c,d and hence the ratio (b+c)/(a+d).
Step 1:Write the dimensional equation for the relation.
M0L0T1=(ML−3)a(L)b(ML−1T−1)c(ML−3)d
Step 2:Match the power of mass.
a+c+d=0⇒a+d=−c
Step 3:Match the power of time.
−c=1⇒c=−1
Step 4:Match the power of length to obtain b.
−3a+b−c−3d=0⇒−3(a+d)+b−c=0⇒−3(1)+b−(−1)=0⇒b=2
Step 5:Form the requested ratio with a+d=1, b=2, c=−1.
a+db+c=12+(−1)=1
Final answer: 1
Chemistry25 questions
Q51Single correctRedox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Consider the above electrochemical cell where a metal electrode (M) is undergoing redox reaction by forming M+(M→M++e). The cation M+ is present in two different concentrations c1 and c2 as shown above. Which of the following statement is correct for generating a positive cell potential?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3If c1 is present at cathode, then c1>c2.
Approach:
Given a concentration cell with the same metal M in both compartments at cation concentrations c1 and c2, identify the concentration condition that makes Ecell>0 via the Nernst relation, where oxidation M→M++e occurs at the anode and M++e→M at the cathode.
Step 1:In a concentration cell the standard potentials of the two identical half-cells cancel, so Ecell∘=0 and the entire emf comes from the concentration term.
Step 3:A positive cell potential requires the logarithm of the cathode-to-anode ratio to be positive, so the cathode compartment must be the more concentrated one.
Ecell>0⇒[M+]cathode>[M+]anode
Step 4:Placing c1 at the cathode then forces c1 to be the larger concentration, i.e. c1>c2, for a positive cell potential.
c1 at cathode⇒c1>c2
Final answer: c1 present at cathode with c1>c2
Q52Single correctAtomic Structure
Identify the INCORRECT statements from the following: A. Notation 1224Mg represents 24 protons and 12 neutrons. B. Wavelength of a radiation of frequency 4.5×1015S−1 is 6.7×10−8 m. C. One radiation has wavelength =λ1(900nm) and energy =E1, Other radiation has wavelength =λ2(300nm) and energy =E2. E1:E2=3:1. D. Number of photons of light of wavelength 2000 pm that provides 1 J of energy is 1.006×1016. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A and C Only
Approach:
Each statement is tested independently using nuclear notation, the wave relation λ=c/ν, the inverse proportionality E∝1/λ, and the photon count N=Etotal/(hc/λ); the statements failing their checks form the incorrect set.
Step 1:In 1224Mg the subscript 12 is the atomic number (proton count) and the superscript 24 is the mass number, so protons =12 and neutrons =24−12=12, contradicting the claim of 24 protons and 12 neutrons.
Z=12,N=24−12=12
Step 2:Compute the wavelength for frequency 4.5×1015s−1.
λ=4.5×10153×108=6.67×10−8m
Step 3:Energy varies inversely with wavelength, so the ratio E1:E2 equals λ2:λ1=300:900=1:3, which is the reverse of the stated 3:1.
E2E1=λ1λ2=900300=31
Step 4:Compute the energy per photon for λ=2000pm=2000×10−12m and divide 1J by it.
Step 5:Statements A and C fail their checks, while B and D reproduce the quoted values, so the incorrect set is A and C.
{A,C} incorrect
Final answer: A and C Only
Q53Single correctCoordination Compounds
Identify the CORRECT set of details from the following: A. [Co(NH3)6]3+ : Inner orbital complex; d2sp3 hybridized B. [MnCl6]3− : Outer orbital complex; sp3d2 hybridized C. [CoF6]3− : Outer orbital complex; d2sp3 hybridized D. [FeF6]3− : Outer orbital complex; sp3d2 hybridized E. [Ni(CN)4]2− : Inner orbital complex; sp3 hybridized Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2A,B&D Only
Approach:
Valence bond theory assigns hybridization from the metal d-electron count and ligand field strength: strong-field ligands give inner-orbital (d2sp3, dsp2) complexes and weak-field ligands give outer-orbital (sp3d2) complexes; each statement is checked against the spectrochemical order.
Step 1:[Co(NH3)6]3+: Co3+ is 3d6 and NH3 is a strong-field ligand, pairing the d-electrons to vacate two inner 3d orbitals, giving an inner-orbital d2sp3 complex.
Co3+(3d6),NH3⇒d2sp3 (inner)
Step 2:[MnCl6]3−: Mn3+ is 3d4 and Cl− is a weak-field ligand, so the 3d electrons remain unpaired and outer 4d orbitals are used, giving an outer-orbital sp3d2 complex.
Mn3+(3d4),Cl−⇒sp3d2 (outer)
Step 3:[CoF6]3−: Co3+ is 3d6 but F− is a weak-field ligand, so no inner 3d pairing occurs and the complex is outer-orbital sp3d2, contradicting the stated d2sp3.
Co3+(3d6),F−⇒sp3d2 (outer)
Step 4:[FeF6]3−: Fe3+ is 3d5 and F− is weak-field, giving an outer-orbital high-spin sp3d2 complex.
Fe3+(3d5),F−⇒sp3d2 (outer)
Step 5:[Ni(CN)4]2−: Ni2+ is 3d8 and CN− is strong-field, pairing electrons to free one 3d orbital for a square-planar dsp2 inner complex, not the stated sp3.
Ni2+(3d8),CN−⇒dsp2 (square planar)
Final answer: A, B & D Only
Q54Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Elements X and Y belong to group 15. The difference between the electronegativity values of 'X' and phosphorus is higher than that of the difference between phosphorus and 'Y'. 'X' & 'Y' are respectively
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4N \;&\; As
Approach:
Given X and Y in group 15 with ∣EN(X)−EN(P)∣>∣EN(P)−EN(Y)∣, use the group-15 electronegativity trend to locate X far from P and Y close to P.
Step 1:Electronegativity decreases down group 15 because atomic size increases and effective nuclear pull on bonding electrons weakens.
N>P>As>Sb>Bi
Step 2:Nitrogen lies two periods above phosphorus, so ∣EN(N)−EN(P)∣ is a large separation, making X = N satisfy the larger-difference requirement.
∣EN(N)−EN(P)∣ large
Step 3:Arsenic lies immediately below phosphorus, so ∣EN(P)−EN(As)∣ is a small separation, making Y = As satisfy the smaller-difference requirement.
∣EN(P)−EN(As)∣ small
Step 4:The inequality ∣EN(N)−EN(P)∣>∣EN(P)−EN(As)∣ holds, so the pair is X = N and Y = As.
∣EN(N)−EN(P)∣>∣EN(P)−EN(As)∣
Final answer: N & As
Q55Single correctRedox Reactions and Electrochemistry
The oxidation state of chromium in the final product in the reaction between KI and acidified K2Cr2O7 solution is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1+3
Approach:
Determine chromium's oxidation state in acidified K2Cr2O7, then track its change when iodide (I− from KI) reduces it, to fix the chromium oxidation state in the final product.
Step 1:In Cr2O72−, with oxygen at −2, the two chromium atoms satisfy 2x+7(−2)=−2, giving x=+6 for each chromium.
2x−14=−2⇒x=+6
Step 2:In acidic medium iodide is oxidised to iodine (2I−→I2+2e−) and supplies electrons that reduce dichromate; the half-reaction shows each Cr gains three electrons.
Cr+6+3e−→Cr+3
Step 3:The chromium-bearing product is the chromium(III) ion, so the final oxidation state of chromium is +3.
Cr2O72−→2Cr3+
Final answer: +3
Q56Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The second ionisation enthalpy of Na larger than the corresponding ionisation enthalpy of Mg. Statement II: the ionic radius of O2− is larger than that of F−. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Both statement I and statement II are true
Approach:
Statement I compares the second ionisation enthalpy of Na (ionising the noble-gas-core Na+) with the first ionisation enthalpy of Mg; Statement II compares the radii of the isoelectronic anions O2− and F− using effective nuclear charge.
Step 1:The second ionisation of sodium removes an electron from Na+, which has the stable neon configuration (2,8), requiring a very large energy input.
Na+(2,8)→Na2++e−
Step 2:Magnesium's first ionisation removes a 3s electron from a neutral atom outside a noble-gas core, costing far less than breaking into the closed octet of Na+, so IE2(Na)>IE1(Mg) and Statement I is true.
IE2(Na)>IE1(Mg)
Step 3:O2− and F− are isoelectronic with 10 electrons; oxygen has 8 protons versus fluorine's 9, so O2− feels a smaller nuclear pull, giving it a larger ionic radius.
Z(O)=8<Z(F)=9⇒r(O2−)>r(F−)
Step 4:Both statements are consistent with the underlying trends, so both are true.
I true,II true
Final answer: Both statement I and statement II are true
which of the following statements are TRUE about Haloform reaction? A. Sodium hypochlorite reacts with KI to give KOI. B. KOI is a reducing agent. C. α,β-unsaturated methylketone (CH3−CH=CH−C∥O−CH3) will give iodoform reaction. D. Isopropyl alcohol will not give iodoform test E. Methanoic acid will give positive iodoform test Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2A&C Only
Approach:
Each statement about the haloform (iodoform) reaction is tested: the in-situ generation of hypoiodite, its oxidising character, the structural requirement of a CH3CO− or CH3CH(OH)− group, and the behaviour of the named compounds; the surviving statements are the TRUE set.
Step 1:Sodium hypochlorite transfers its active oxygen to iodide, oxidising it to hypoiodite, so KOI forms and statement A is true.
NaOCl+KI→NaCl+KOI
Step 2:Hypoiodite releases nascent oxygen (KOI→KI+[O]) and therefore behaves as an oxidising agent, contradicting statement B's claim that it is a reducing agent.
KOI→KI+[O]
Step 3:The α,β-unsaturated methyl ketone CH3−CH=CH−CO−CH3 carries a terminal CH3CO− group, which is exactly the moiety the iodoform reaction requires, so statement C is true.
CH3−CH=CH−CO−CH3⇒CHI3
Step 4:Isopropyl alcohol (CH3)2CHOH contains the CH3CH(OH)− unit, which is oxidised in situ to a methyl ketone and gives a positive iodoform test, so statement D ('will not give') is false.
(CH3)2CHOH⇒positive iodoform
Step 5:Methanoic acid HCOOH has no CH3CO− or CH3CH(OH)− group, so it gives a negative iodoform test, making statement E ('positive test') false.
A mixed ether (P), when heated with excess of hot concentrated hydrogen iodide produces two different alkyl iodides which when treated with aq. NaOH give compounds (Q) and (R) Both (Q) and (R) give yellow precipitate with NaOI. Identify the mixed ether(P):
Hot concentrated HI cleaves the mixed ether into two alkyl iodides; aqueous NaOH converts them to alcohols Q and R, and both must give a yellow iodoform precipitate with NaOI, which requires each alcohol to carry the CH3CH(OH)− (methyl-carbinol) unit. The option whose both fragments satisfy this is selected.
Step 1:Excess hot concentrated HI cleaves the C-O bonds of the mixed ether, converting each alkyl-oxygen fragment into an alkyl iodide.
R−O−R′HIRI+R′I
Step 2:Each alkyl iodide on hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH gives an alcohol; for both Q and R to give iodoform, each alcohol must hold the CH3CH(OH)− or CH3CO−-precursor group.
RIaq.NaOHROHNaOICHI3↓
Step 3:For ethyl sec-butyl ether CH3CH2−O−CH(CH3)CH2CH3, the ethyl fragment yields ethanol CH3CH2OH and the sec-butyl fragment yields butan-2-ol CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3; ethanol and butan-2-ol both carry the methyl-carbinol grouping and give iodoform.
CH3CH2OH and CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3⇒CHI3
Step 4:Among the alternatives, the tert-amyl fragment (option 3) gives a tertiary alcohol with no CH3CH(OH)− unit, and the benzyl / 1-phenylpropyl fragments (options 2 and 4) yield alcohols lacking the methyl-carbinol group, so each of those options has at least one fragment that fails the iodoform test.
tertiary or benzylic alcohol⇒no iodoform
Final answer: Ethyl sec-butyl ether (CH3CH2−O−CH(CH3)CH2CH3)
Q59Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Given below are two statements: Statement I: (CH3)3C⊕ is more stable than C⊕H3 as nine hyperconjugation interactions are possible in (CH3)3C⊕. Statement II: C⊕H3 is less stable than (CH3)3C⊕ as only three hyperconjugation interactions are possible in C⊕H3. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Statement I is true but statement II is false
Approach:
Hyperconjugation stabilises a carbocation through α C-H bonds, and the condition for any hyperconjugation is at least one C-H bond on a carbon adjacent to the positive centre. Count these interactions for (CH3)3C⊕ and C⊕H3 and test each statement.
Step 1:In (CH3)3C⊕ three methyl carbons are attached to the cationic carbon, each providing three α C-H bonds, giving 3×3=9 hyperconjugation interactions and high stability, so Statement I is true.
(CH3)3C⊕:n=3×3=9
Step 2:In C⊕H3 the positive carbon bears only hydrogens directly and has no adjacent carbon, hence no α C-H bonds and zero hyperconjugation interactions.
C⊕H3:n=0
Step 3:Statement II asserts three hyperconjugation interactions in the methyl cation, but the correct count is zero; the methyl cation is indeed the less stable, yet not for the reason given, so Statement II is false.
C⊕H3⇒n=0=3
Step 4:Statement I (9 interactions, more stable) is true and Statement II (3 interactions) is false.
I true,II false
Final answer: Statement I is true but statement II is false
Given below are two statements: Statement I: benzene-1,2-diamine can be synthesized from ortho-di(n-propyl)benzene using simpler reagents in the order i) Acidic KMnO4 ii) Ammonia iii) Bromine and alkali Statement II: In the order i) Bromine −H2O ii) NaNO2/HCl(0−5∘C) iii) Aq. H3PO2, p-toluidine can be converted into 3,5-dibromotoluene In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Both statement I and Statement II are true
Approach:
Statement I is traced through side-chain oxidation, amide formation and double Hofmann degradation; Statement II is traced through ring bromination of p-toluidine, diazotisation of its amino group and reductive deamination, which install two bromine atoms and remove the amino group to give 3,5-dibromotoluene.
Step 1:Acidic KMnO4 oxidises both n-propyl side chains of ortho-di(n-propyl)benzene down to carboxyl groups, giving benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid (phthalic acid).
o-C6H4(C3H7)2KMnO4/H+o-C6H4(COOH)2
Step 2:Ammonia converts both carboxyl groups (via the ammonium salt on heating) to amide groups, giving the diamide.
o-C6H4(COOH)2NH3,Δo-C6H4(CONH2)2
Step 3:Bromine and alkali drive a double Hofmann bromamide degradation, converting each −CONH2 into −NH2 with loss of one carbon, yielding benzene-1,2-diamine, so Statement I is true.
o-C6H4(CONH2)2Br2/OH−o-C6H4(NH2)2
Step 4:Statement II starts from p-toluidine. Bromine water brominates the two positions ortho to the strongly activating −NH2 group (the 3 and 5 positions relative to the methyl). NaNO2/HCl then diazotises the amino group, and aqueous H3PO2 reductively removes the diazonium group as −H, leaving 3,5-dibromotoluene, so Statement II is true.
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q61Single correctPurification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
In Carius method 0.2425 g of an organic compound gave 0.5253 g silver chloride. The percentage of chlorine in the organic compound is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 153.58%
Approach:
Given 0.2425g of compound yielding 0.5253g of AgCl in the Carius method, find the mass of chlorine from the Cl-to-AgCl mass fraction and express it as a percentage of the sample mass.
Step 1:Insert the molar masses (Cl =35.5, AgCl =108+35.5=143.5) and the measured masses into the percentage relation.
%Cl=143.535.5×0.24250.5253×100
Step 2:Evaluate the AgCl-to-sample mass ratio.
0.24250.5253=2.1662
Step 3:Evaluate the chlorine mass fraction in AgCl.
143.535.5=0.24739
Step 4:Multiply the two factors and convert to a percentage.
A student has been given a compound 'x' of molecular formula- C6H7N. 'x' is sparingly soluble in water. However, on addition of dilute mineral acid 'x' becomes soluble in water. 'x' when treated with CHCl3 and KOH\,(alc), 'y' is produced. 'y' has a specific unpleasant smell. On treatment with benzenesulphonyl chloride 'x' gives a compound 'z' which is soluble in alkali. The number of different "H" atoms present in 'z' is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 17
Approach:
Identify compound 'x' (C6H7N) from its solubility in acid, the carbylamine smell with CHCl3/KOH, and the alkali-soluble Hinsberg product; then count the chemically distinct hydrogen environments in that product 'z'.
Step 1:Molecular formula C6H7N with basicity (dissolves in dilute mineral acid) and a positive carbylamine (isocyanide) test on CHCl3/KOH marks 'x' as a primary aromatic amine, aniline.
x=C6H5NH2
Step 2:Aniline reacts with benzenesulphonyl chloride to give N-phenylbenzenesulphonamide 'z'; its acidic N-H makes it soluble in alkali, matching the clue.
z=C6H5SO2NHC6H5
Step 3:The benzenesulphonyl ring is monosubstituted, so its five aromatic hydrogens fall into three distinct environments: ortho, meta and para to the SO2 group.
C6H5SO2−:3 aromatic H types
Step 4:The aniline-derived ring is also monosubstituted, contributing three further distinct aromatic environments: ortho, meta and para to the NH group.
−NHC6H5:3 aromatic H types
Step 5:The single N-H proton is a separate environment, giving 3+3+1=7 distinct hydrogen atoms in z.
3+3+1=7
Final answer: 7
Q63Single correctBiomolecules
Both human DNA and RNA are chiral molecules. The chirality in DNA and RNA arises due to the presence of
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1D-sugar component
Approach:
Locate the source of chirality in DNA and RNA among the three nucleotide building blocks (base, sugar, phosphate) by eliminating the achiral components.
Step 1:Both nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides, each composed of a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.
nucleotide=base+sugar+phosphate
Step 2:The phosphate group is symmetric and achiral, and the nitrogenous bases are essentially planar and achiral, so neither can be the source of molecular chirality.
phosphate, planar base→achiral
Step 3:The pentose sugars (D-ribose in RNA and D-2-deoxyribose in DNA) contain stereogenic carbon centres of the D-configuration, which impart chirality to the nucleic acids.
D-ribose / D-2-deoxyribose→stereocentres
Final answer: D-sugar component
Q64Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
It is noticed that Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+ but Sn2+ is less stable than Sn4+. Observe the following reactions. PbO2+Pb→2PbO;ΔrG (1) SnO2+Sn→2SnO;ΔrG (2) Identify the correct set from the following
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2ΔrG(1)<0;ΔrG(2)>0
Approach:
Given the relative stabilities Pb2+>Pb4+ and Sn2+<Sn4+, each reaction converts a +4 oxide to a +2 oxide; the target is the sign of ΔrG for each, fixed by which oxidation state the products favour.
Step 1:Reaction (1) PbO2+Pb→2PbO converts lead from +4 (in PbO2) and 0 (in Pb) into the +2 state (in PbO). The product oxidation state Pb2+ is the more stable one for lead.
Pb4++Pb0→2Pb2+
Step 2:Because Pb2+ is more stable than Pb4+, formation of PbO is thermodynamically favoured, so ΔrG(1) is negative.
Pb2+>Pb4+(stability)⇒ΔrG(1)<0
Step 3:Reaction (2) SnO2+Sn→2SnO converts tin into the +2 state. For tin the +4 state is the more stable one, so producing Sn2+ is unfavourable and ΔrG(2) is positive.
Sn2+<Sn4+(stability)⇒ΔrG(2)>0
Step 4:Combining the two signs gives the matching set.
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Cyclopentane ring bearing an ethyl group and a carbon holding both a methyl and a bromine (tertiary alkyl bromide)
Approach:
The substrate is a cyclopentane carrying an ethyl group, a methyl group, and two bromine atoms on adjacent (vicinal) carbons. Treatment by (i) Zn,Δ then (ii) HBr is traced through the alkene and the most stable carbocation to identify the major product (P).
Step 1:Zinc on heating removes the two vicinal bromine atoms as ZnBr2, installing a ring double bond between the two former C-Br carbons to give a substituted cyclopentene.
vic-dibromideZn,Δcyclopentene+ZnBr2
Step 2:HBr protonates the double bond. Markovnikov orientation places H+ so that the positive charge sits on the more substituted ring carbon, generating a secondary carbocation.
C=C+H+→C⊕(2∘)
Step 3:A 1,2-hydride shift relocates the positive charge onto the ring carbon bearing the methyl group, converting the secondary cation into a more stable tertiary carbocation.
C⊕(2∘)1,2-H shiftC⊕(3∘)
Step 4:Bromide adds to the tertiary carbon, producing a tertiary alkyl bromide in which one ring carbon holds both the methyl and the bromine, with the ethyl group on a separate ring carbon.
C⊕(3∘)+Br−→3∘ C-Br
Final answer: Cyclopentane with an ethyl group on one carbon and a methyl plus bromine on the same (tertiary) carbon
Q66Single correctChemical Kinetics
Observe the following reactions at T(K). I. A→ products II. 5Br−(aq)+BrO3−(aq)+6H+(aq)→3Br2(aq)+3H2O(l) Both the reactions are started at 10.00am. The rates of these reactions at 10.10am are same. The value of −ΔtΔ[Br−] at 10.10 am is 2×10−4molL−1min−1. The concentration of A at 10.10 am is 10−2molL−1. What is the first order rate constant (in min−1) of reaction I?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 14×10−3
Approach:
Given −ΔtΔ[Br−]=2×10−4molL−1min−1 for reaction II, equal rates of I and II at 10.10 am, and [A]=10−2molL−1, the target is the first-order rate constant k of reaction I. The bromide disappearance is converted to the reaction rate via its stoichiometric coefficient and then divided by [A].
Step 1:In reaction II the coefficient of Br− is 5, so the rate of reaction equals one-fifth of the bromide consumption rate.
rateII=51(−ΔtΔ[Br−])=51×2×10−4
Step 2:The two reaction rates are equal at 10.10 am, so the rate of reaction I takes the same value.
rateI=rateII=4×10−5molL−1min−1
Step 3:Apply the first-order rate law for A→ products and divide by [A] to isolate k.
Iodoform test can differentiate between A. Methanol and Ethanol B. CH3COOH and CH3CH2COOH C. Cyclohexene and cyclohexanone D. Diethyl ether and Pentan -3- one E. Anisole and acetone Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3A&E Only
Approach:
The iodoform test (I2/NaOH) is positive only for a CH3CO- group (methyl ketone) or a CH3CH(OH)- group (methyl carbinol). A pair is differentiable only when exactly one of its two members is positive.
Step 1:Pair A: methanol (CH3OH) has no α-CH and tests negative; ethanol (CH3CH2OH) bears the CH3CH(OH)- group and tests positive. Exactly one positive, so A is differentiable.
CH3OH(−),CH3CH2OH(+)
Step 2:Pair B: ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) and propanoic acid (CH3CH2COOH) are carboxylic acids lacking a methyl carbonyl/carbinol; both test negative, so B is not differentiable.
CH3COOH(−),CH3CH2COOH(−)
Step 3:Pair C: cyclohexene has no carbonyl, and cyclohexanone is a cyclic ketone with no CH3CO- group; both test negative, so C is not differentiable.
cyclohexene(−),cyclohexanone(−)
Step 4:Pair D: diethyl ether is unreactive, and pentan-3-one (CH3CH2COCH2CH3) is a symmetrical ketone with no methyl directly on the carbonyl; both test negative, so D is not differentiable.
(C2H5)2O(−),CH3CH2COCH2CH3(−)
Step 5:Pair E: anisole (C6H5OCH3) tests negative, while acetone (CH3COCH3) carries the CH3CO- group and tests positive. Exactly one positive, so E is differentiable.
C6H5OCH3(−),CH3COCH3(+)
Final answer: A & E Only
Q68Single correctAtomic Structure
The work functions of two metals (MA and MB) are in the 1:2 ratio. When these metals are exposed to photons of energy 6 eV, the kinetic energy of liberated electrons of MA:MB is in the ratio of 2.642:1. The work function (in eV) of MA and MB are respectively.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22.3,4.6
Approach:
Given photon energy E=6eV, work-function ratio ϕA:ϕB=1:2, and kinetic-energy ratio KEA:KEB=2.642:1, the target is ϕA and ϕB. Einstein's photoelectric equation gives KE=E−ϕ, and the kinetic-energy ratio yields one equation in ϕA.
Step 1:With E=6eV and ϕB=2ϕA, the ejected-electron kinetic energies for the two metals are written.
Step 4:Apply the 1:2 ratio to obtain the second work function.
ϕB=2ϕA=2(2.30)=4.60eV
Final answer: 2.3, 4.6
Q69Single correctChemical Kinetics
Given above is the concentration vs time plot for a dissociation reaction A→nB. Based on the data of the initial phase of the reaction (initial 10 min), the value of n is.....
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 13
Approach:
For the dissociation A→nB, each mole of A consumed produces n moles of B, so Δ[B]=nΔ[A]. The initial-phase (first 10 min) concentration changes are read from the plot and the ratio gives n.
Step 1:From the falling curve for A, the concentration drops from 0.05M at t=0 to 0.04M at t=10 min, so the amount of A consumed in the initial phase is 0.01M.
Δ[A]=0.05−0.04=0.01M
Step 2:From the rising curve for B, the product concentration grows from 0 to 0.03M over the same first 10 minutes.
Δ[B]=0.03−0=0.03M
Step 3:Apply the stoichiometric relation to obtain n.
n=Δ[A]Δ[B]=0.010.03=3
Final answer: 3
Q70Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Which statements are NOT TRUE about ? A. It has a see-saw shape B. Xe has 5 electron pairs in its valence shell in XeO2F2. C. The O-Xe-O bond angle is close to 180∘ D. The F-Xe-F bond angle is close to 180∘ E. Xe has 16 valence electrons in XeO2F2 Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4B,C and E only
Approach:
The geometry of XeO2F2 follows from VSEPR. Xe (8 valence electrons) forms two Xe=O bonds and two Xe−F bonds and retains one lone pair, giving a steric number of 5 (trigonal bipyramidal arrangement, see-saw shape). Each statement is tested against this picture; the NOT-TRUE ones are collected.
Step 1:Statement A: with two doubly-bonded O, two singly-bonded F and one lone pair, XeO2F2 adopts a trigonal-bipyramidal electron arrangement and a see-saw molecular shape. Statement A is true.
2(Xe=O)+2(Xe−F)+1lp,SN=5⇒see-saw
Step 2:Statement B claims Xe has 5 electron pairs in its valence shell. The valence shell holds two Xe=O double bonds (four bond pairs), two Xe−F bonds (two bond pairs) and one lone pair, totalling seven electron pairs, not five. Statement B is not true.
4(Xe=Opairs)+2(Xe−Fpairs)+1lp=7=5
Step 3:Statement C: the two oxygen atoms occupy equatorial positions of the trigonal bipyramid, so the O-Xe-O angle is near 120∘, far from 180∘. Statement C is not true.
∠O-Xe-O≈120∘=180∘
Step 4:Statement D: the two fluorine atoms occupy the axial positions, giving an F-Xe-F angle close to 180∘ (slightly bent by the equatorial lone pair). Statement D is true.
∠F-Xe-F≈180∘
Step 5:Statement E claims Xe has 16 valence electrons in XeO2F2. A neutral Xe atom (group 18) has 8 valence electrons, so 16 is incorrect. Statement E is not true.
Xe valence electrons=8=16
Final answer: B, C and E only
Q71NumericalEquilibrium
X2(g)+Y2(g)⇌2Z(g) X2(g) and Y2(g) are added to a 1 L flask and it is found that the system attains the above equilibrium at T(K) with the number of moles of X2(g), Y2(g) and Z(g) being 3, 3 and 9 mol respectively (equilibrium moles). Under this condition of equilibrium, 10mol of Z(g) is added to the flask and the temperature is maintained at T(K). Then the number of moles of Z(g) in the flask when the new equilibrium is established is ______. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 15
Approach:
The 1 L flask makes moles numerically equal to molar concentrations. Kc is computed from the first equilibrium (X2=3,Y2=3,Z=9). After adding 10 mol Z, the reverse extent x is found from the unchanged Kc, and the new moles of Z are evaluated.
Step 1:Evaluate Kc from the first equilibrium amounts in the 1 L flask.
Kc=3×392=981=9
Step 2:Adding 10 mol Z raises it to 19 mol and drives the equilibrium in reverse by an extent x. Each reverse unit consumes 2 mol Z and produces 1 mol each of X2 and Y2.
[Z]=19−2x,[X2]=[Y2]=3+x
Step 3:Apply Kc=9. Since both sides are perfect squares with positive quantities, take the positive square root.
(3+x)2(19−2x)2=9⇒3+x19−2x=3
Step 4:Solve the linear equation and evaluate the new moles of Z.
19−2x=3(3+x)=9+3x⇒5x=10⇒x=2;Z=19−2(2)=15
Final answer: 15
Q72NumericalCoordination Compounds
Total number of unpaired electrons present in the central metal atoms/ions of [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2−, [PtCl2(NH3)2], [Ni(CN)4]2− and [Pt(CN)4]2− is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
For each complex the central-metal oxidation state and d-electron count are found, then the ligand field strength and geometry fix the number of unpaired electrons; the five contributions are summed.
Step 1:[Ni(CO)4]: Ni is in oxidation state 0; the strong-field CO ligands pair the electrons into a 3d10 configuration, tetrahedral geometry. No unpaired electrons.
Ni0,3d10⇒0unpaired
Step 2:[NiCl4]2−: Ni2+ is d8; Cl− is a weak-field ligand giving a tetrahedral complex, where the d8 arrangement (e4t24) leaves two unpaired electrons.
Ni2+,d8(tetrahedral)⇒2unpaired
Step 3:[PtCl2(NH3)2]: Pt2+ is d8; as a 5d metal it forms a square-planar complex in which all eight d-electrons are paired. No unpaired electrons.
Pt2+,d8(square planar)⇒0unpaired
Step 4:[Ni(CN)4]2−: Ni2+ is d8; strong-field CN− forces a square-planar dsp2 complex with all electrons paired. No unpaired electrons.
Ni2+,d8(dsp2,square planar)⇒0unpaired
Step 5:[Pt(CN)4]2−: Pt2+ is d8, square planar and diamagnetic. Summing all five contributions gives the total.
0+2+0+0+0=2
Final answer: 2
Q73NumericalHydrocarbons
Consider the following reaction of benzene. In compound (Q), the percentage of oxygen is ______ %. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 10
Approach:
The reagent is 4-oxopentanoyl chloride, CH3CO-CH2CH2-COCl. Friedel-Crafts acylation joins its −COCl end to benzene, forming a phenyl diketone (P). Aqueous NaOH with heat drives an intramolecular aldol condensation, losing one H2O to give a cyclic enone (Q); the oxygen percentage of Q is then found.
Step 1:Anhydrous AlCl3 promotes Friedel-Crafts acylation at the acid-chloride carbon, giving 1-phenylpentane-1,4-dione (P).
Step 2:Aqueous NaOH with heat triggers an intramolecular aldol condensation between the two carbonyls, eliminating one water molecule to form a cyclic enone (Q).
C11H12O2aq.NaOH,ΔC11H10O+H2O
Step 3:Compute the molar mass of Q using C = 12, H = 1, O = 16.
M(Q)=11(12)+10(1)+16=132+10+16=158
Step 4:Q contains one oxygen atom; evaluate the oxygen percentage.
%O=15816×100=10.13%
Final answer: 10
Q74NumericalSolutions
Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 320K, the vapour pressure of the solution. Containing 3 mol of A and 1 mol of B is 500mmHg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of A is further added to this solution, vapour pressure of the solution increases by 20mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mm Hg) of B in pure state is ______. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 200
Approach:
A and B form an ideal solution, so Raoult's law gives the total vapour pressure as the mole-fraction-weighted sum of the pure-component pressures. The two given compositions (500 mm Hg, then 520 mm Hg after adding 1 mol A) provide two equations solved for PA0 and PB0.
Step 1:First solution (3 mol A, 1 mol B): xA=43, xB=41, total pressure 500 mm Hg.
500=PA0⋅43+PB0⋅41⇒3PA0+PB0=2000
Step 2:Adding 1 mol A gives 4 mol A and 1 mol B: xA=54, xB=51, and the pressure rises by 20 to 520 mm Hg.
520=PA0⋅54+PB0⋅51⇒4PA0+PB0=2600
Step 3:Subtract equation (1) from equation (2) to eliminate PB0.
(4PA0+PB0)−(3PA0+PB0)=2600−2000⇒PA0=600
Step 4:Substitute PA0=600 into equation (1) to obtain PB0.
PB0=2000−3(600)=2000−1800=200
Final answer: 200
Q75NumericalRedox Reactions and Electrochemistry
200cc of x×10−3M potassium dichromate is required to oxidise 750cc of 0.6M Mohr's salt solution in acidic medium. Here x= ______.
SolutionAnswer: 375
Approach:
At the equivalence point the milliequivalents of potassium dichromate equal those of Mohr's salt (ferrous ammonium sulfate). Using the n-factors (6 for dichromate, 1 for Fe(II)) and the equivalence relation n1M1V1=n2M2V2 gives an equation solved for x.
Step 1:In acidic medium dichromate reduces Cr(VI)→Cr(III) for both chromium atoms, a gain of 6 electrons, so its n-factor is 6; Mohr's salt Fe2+→Fe3+ loses 1 electron, n-factor 1.
Step 2:Equate milliequivalents of dichromate (200cc of x×10−3M) and Mohr's salt (750cc of 0.6M).
6×(x×10−3)×200=1×0.6×750
Step 3:Evaluate the right side and simplify the left side.
1200x×10−3=450⇒1.2x=450
Step 4:Solve for x.
x=1.2450=375
Final answer: 375
Mathematics25 questions
Q1Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
Let PQ be a chord of the hyperbola 4x2−b2y2=1, perpendicular to the x-axis such that OPQ is an equilateral triangle, O being the centre of the hyperbola. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is 3, then the area of the triangle OPQ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1583
Approach:
The hyperbola 4x2−b2y2=1 has a2=4 and eccentricity 3, and a vertical chord PQ forms an equilateral triangle OPQ with centre O at the origin. The target is the area of triangle OPQ, obtained by fixing b2, locating P and Q from the equilateral condition, and applying the half-base-times-height formula.
Step 1:Determine b2 from the eccentricity with a2=4.
3=1+4b2⇒b2=8
Step 2:Place the vertical chord at x=h, so P=(h,k) and Q=(h,−k) with k>0, symmetric about the x-axis. Then PQ=2k.
P=(h,k),Q=(h,−k),PQ=2k
Step 3:For triangle OPQ to be equilateral, the line OP makes 30∘ with the x-axis, giving tan30∘=hk.
hk=tan30∘=31⇒h=3k
Step 4:Substitute P=(h,k) into the hyperbola equation using h2=3k2.
43k2−8k2=1⇒86k2−k2=1⇒85k2=1⇒k2=58
Step 5:Compute the area with base PQ=2k and height equal to the x-coordinate h=3k.
Δ=21(2k)(3k)=3k2=3⋅58=583
Final answer: 583
Q2Single correctMatrices and Determinants
The system of linear equations x+y+z=6 2x+5y+az=36 x+2y+3z=b has
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Infinitely many solutions for a=8 and b=14
Approach:
A 3×3 system in x,y,z carries parameters a,b. The target is the condition on a,b governing the nature of the solution, found by evaluating the coefficient determinant and testing consistency at its zero.
Step 1:Compute the determinant of the coefficient matrix by expansion along the first row.
∣A∣=1211521a3=1(15−2a)−1(6−a)+1(4−5)=8−a
Step 2:For a=8 the determinant is nonzero, so the system has a unique solution for every b.
a=8⇒∣A∣=0⇒unique solution
Step 3:Set a=8 and reduce: R2→R2−2R1 gives 3y+6z=24, i.e. y+2z=8; R3→R3−R1 gives y+2z=b−6.
y+2z=8,y+2z=b−6
Step 4:Consistency at a=8 requires the two relations to coincide, fixing b.
b−6=8⇒b=14
Step 5:At a=8,b=14 the third equation duplicates a combination of the first two, leaving one free variable.
R(A)=R(A∣B)=2<3
Final answer: Infinitely many solutions for a=8 and b=14
Q3Single correctStatistics and Probability
If the mean and the variance of the data Class | 4-8 | 8-12 | 12-16 | 16-20 | Freaquency | 3 | λ | 4 | 7 | are μ and 19 respectively, then the value of λ+μ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 319
Approach:
A grouped frequency distribution has one unknown frequency λ, variance 19, and unknown mean μ. The target is λ+μ, found by expressing mean and variance through class mid-values, solving for λ, then computing μ.
Step 1:Take mid-values xi=6,10,14,18 with frequencies 3,λ,4,7; the total frequency is N=14+λ.
Step 3:Write the variance equation and clear the denominator (14+λ)2.
19=14+λ3160+100λ−(14+λ200+10λ)2
Step 4:Expand: 19(14+λ)2=(3160+100λ)(14+λ)−(200+10λ)2, which simplifies the right side to 4240+560λ.
3724+532λ+19λ2=4240+560λ
Step 5:Collect terms into a quadratic and solve.
19λ2−28λ−516=0⇒λ=3828+784+39216=3828+200=6
Step 6:Compute the mean at λ=6 (N=20) and add.
μ=20200+60=13,λ+μ=6+13=19
Final answer: 19
Q4Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
If z=23+2i, i=−1, then (z201−i)8 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2256
Approach:
The complex number z=23+2i lies on the unit circle. The target is (z201−i)8, evaluated by writing z in polar form, applying De Moivre's theorem, and reducing the angle modulo 2π.
Step 1:Identify the modulus and argument: ∣z∣=1 and argz=6π.
z=cos6π+isin6π=eiπ/6
Step 2:Raise to the 201st power; the angle is 6201π=267π.
z201=ei67π/2
Step 3:Reduce the angle modulo 2π: 267π−16(2π)=267π−64π=23π.
z201=cos23π+isin23π=−i
Step 4:Subtract i and raise to the 8th power, using i8=(i2)4=1.
(z201−i)8=(−i−i)8=(−2i)8=28i8=256
Final answer: 256
Q5Single correctLimit, Continuity and Differentiability
If f(x)=⎩⎨⎧xa∣x∣+x2−2(sin∣x∣)(cos∣x∣),b,xeq0x=0 is continuous at x=0, then a+b is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22
Approach:
The piecewise function carries parameters a,b and must be continuous at x=0. The target is a+b, found by computing the left- and right-hand limits (handling ∣x∣ separately) and matching them to f(0)=b.
Step 1:For x>0, ∣x∣=x and 2sinxcosx=sin2x, so the numerator is ax+x2−sin2x.
f(x)=xax+x2−sin2x=a+x−xsin2x
Step 2:Take the right-hand limit, where xsin2x→2.
limx→0+f(x)=a+0−2=a−2
Step 3:For x<0, ∣x∣=−x and 2sin∣x∣cos∣x∣=sin(2∣x∣)=sin(−2x)=−sin2x, so the numerator is −ax+x2+sin2x.
f(x)=x−ax+x2+sin2x=−a+x+xsin2x
Step 4:Take the left-hand limit, where xsin2x→2.
limx→0−f(x)=−a+0+2=−a+2
Step 5:Continuity forces LHL = RHL, which fixes a.
−a+2=a−2⇒2a=4⇒a=2
Step 6:The common limit equals f(0)=b; then add the parameters.
b=a−2=0,a+b=2+0=2
Final answer: 2
Q6Single correctTrigonometry
Let 2π<θ<π and cotθ=−221. Then the value of sin(215θ)(cos8θ+sin8θ)+cos(215θ)(cos8θ−sin8θ) is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 231−2
Approach:
Here θ lies in the second quadrant with cotθ=−221. The target expression is condensed into cos2θ−sin2θ via compound-angle identities, then evaluated using tan2θ.
Step 1:Set A=215θ and B=8θ and regroup the expression.
Step 2:Evaluate A−B=215θ−8θ=−2θ, and use sin(−2θ)=−sin2θ, cos(−2θ)=cos2θ.
sin(−2θ)+cos(−2θ)=cos2θ−sin2θ
Step 3:Insert t=tan2θ into cotθ=2t1−t2=−221 and clear fractions.
2t1−t2=−221⇒2t2−t−2=0
Step 4:Solve the quadratic; since 4π<2θ<2π gives t>0, take the positive root.
t=221±1+8=221±3⇒t=2
Step 5:From tan2θ=2 with 2θ in the first quadrant, the right triangle has legs 2,1 and hypotenuse 3.
sin2θ=32,cos2θ=31
Step 6:Substitute into the condensed expression.
cos2θ−sin2θ=31−32=31−2
Final answer: 31−2
Q7Single correctIntegral Calculus
Let I(x)=∫(4x+6)(4x2+8x+3)3dx and I(0)=43+20. If I(21)=ba2+c, where a,b,c∈N, gcd(a,b)=1, then a+b+c is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 131
Approach:
The indefinite integral has an initial condition I(0)=43+20 fixing the constant. The target is a+b+c from I(21)=ba2+c, obtained by factoring the radicand, finding the antiderivative, and applying the initial condition.
Step 1:Factor the radicand and the linear factor 4x+6=2(2x+3).
Step 3:Record the antiderivative with an integration constant.
I(x)=432x+32x+1+C
Step 4:Apply the initial condition at x=0, where 31=31.
43⋅31+C=43+C=43+20⇒C=20
Step 5:Evaluate at x=21: 2x+32x+1=42=21, so 21=22.
I(21)=43⋅22+20=832+20
Step 6:Sum the natural numbers, with gcd(3,8)=1 satisfied.
a+b+c=3+8+20=31
Final answer: 31
Q8Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
An equilateral triangle OAB is inscribed in the parabola y2=4x with the vertex O at the vertex of the parabola. Then the minimum distance of the circle having AB as a diameter from the origin is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 44(3−3)
Approach:
An equilateral triangle OAB is inscribed in y2=4x with vertex O at the origin. The target is the shortest distance from the origin to the circle on side AB as diameter, found by locating A and B, then taking the centre distance minus the radius.
Step 1:By symmetry A and B are reflections across the x-axis, so OA makes 30∘ with the axis. With A=(t2,2t) (t>0), the slope gives tan30∘=t22t=t2.
t2=31⇒t=23
Step 2:Compute the coordinates of A and B.
A=(12,43),B=(12,−43)
Step 3:The circle on AB as diameter has centre at the midpoint and radius equal to half of AB.
C=(12,0),r=2AB=283=43
Step 4:Compute the distance from the origin to the centre.
∣OC∣=122+02=12
Step 5:The minimum distance from the origin to the circle is the centre distance minus the radius.
dmin=12−43=4(3−3)
Final answer: 4(3−3)
Q9Single correctStatistics and Probability
Bag A contains 9 white and 8 black balls, while bag B contains 6 white and 4 black balls. One ball is randomly picked up from the bag B and mixed up with the balls in the bag A. Then a ball is randomly drawn from the bag A. If the probability, that the ball drawn is white, is qp, gcd(p,q)=1, then p+q is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 123
Approach:
One ball is transferred from bag B (6 white, 4 black) into bag A (9 white, 8 black), after which a ball is drawn from A. The target is p+q from the probability of drawing white, computed by conditioning on the colour transferred.
Step 1:Probabilities of the transferred ball from B (10 balls total).
P(white from B)=106,P(black from B)=104
Step 2:After transfer bag A holds 18 balls: 10 white if white was transferred, 9 white if black was transferred.
Let A={0,1,2,....,9}. Let R be a relation on A defined by (x,y)∈R if and only if ∣x−y∣ is a multiple of 3. Given below are two statements: Statement-I: n(R)=36. Statement-II: R is an equivalence relation. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Approach:
On A={0,1,…,9}, the relation R holds when ∣x−y∣ is a multiple of 3, i.e. x≡y(mod3). The target is to judge the count n(R) and whether R is an equivalence relation, by partitioning A into residue classes.
Step 1:∣x−y∣ a multiple of 3 is equivalent to x≡y(mod3); partition A by residue.
C0={0,3,6,9},C1={1,4,7},C2={2,5,8}
Step 2:Congruence modulo 3 is reflexive, symmetric and transitive, so R is an equivalence relation; Statement-II holds.
x≡x;x≡y⇒y≡x;x≡y,y≡z⇒x≡z
Step 3:Count ordered pairs: each class Ci contributes ∣Ci∣2 related pairs.
n(R)=42+32+32=16+9+9=34
Step 4:Since 34=36, Statement-I is false.
n(R)=34=36
Final answer: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Q11Single correctVector Algebra
Let a,b,c be three vectors such that a×b=2(a×c). If ∣a∣=1, ∣b∣=4, ∣c∣=2, and the angle between b and c is 60∘, then ∣a⋅c∣ is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11
Approach:
Three vectors satisfy a×b=2(a×c) with ∣a∣=1,∣b∣=4,∣c∣=2 and angle 60∘ between b and c. The target is ∣a⋅c∣, found by deducing a∥(b−2c), fixing the scalar λ from magnitudes, then dotting with c.
Step 1:Rewrite the relation as a single cross product equal to zero, so a is parallel to b−2c.
a×b−2(a×c)=0⇒a×(b−2c)=0⇒b−2c=λa
Step 2:Compute b⋅c from the given angle.
b⋅c=∣b∣∣c∣cos60∘=4⋅2⋅21=4
Step 3:Take magnitudes squared of b−2c=λa using ∣a∣=1.
∣b∣2−4(b⋅c)+4∣c∣2=λ2⇒16−16+16=16=λ2
Step 4:Dot the relation b−2c=λa with c.
b⋅c−2∣c∣2=λ(a⋅c)⇒4−8=λ(a⋅c)⇒λ(a⋅c)=−4
Step 5:Take absolute values with ∣λ∣=4.
∣a⋅c∣=∣λ∣∣−4∣=44=1
Final answer: 1
Q12Single correctSets, Relations and Functions
Consider two sets A={x∈Z:∣∣x−3∣−3∣≤1} and B={x∈R−{1,2}:x−1(x−2)(x−4)loge(∣x−2∣)=0}. Then the number of onto functions f:A→B is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 262
Approach:
Set A is defined by an integer modulus inequality and set B by a real equation excluding x=1,2. The target is the number of onto functions f:A→B, found by listing both sets and applying the surjection count for a two-element codomain.
Step 1:Solve ∣∣x−3∣−3∣≤1: with u=∣x−3∣, ∣u−3∣≤1 gives 2≤u≤4, hence 2≤∣x−3∣≤4.
x−3∈[−4,−2]∪[2,4]⇒x∈[−1,1]∪[5,7]
Step 2:Collect the integer solutions to form A.
A={−1,0,1,5,6,7}⇒∣A∣=6
Step 3:For B, the product x−1(x−2)(x−4)loge∣x−2∣=0 vanishes when (x−2)(x−4)=0 or loge∣x−2∣=0, with x=1,2 excluded.
Step 4:Collect the valid elements of B (at x=4 the numerator factor forces the product to zero).
B={3,4}⇒∣B∣=2
Step 5:Count onto functions from a 6-element set to a 2-element set.
26−2=64−2=62
Final answer: 62
Q13Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
If the points of intersection of the ellipses x2+2y2−6x−12y+23=0 and 4x2+2y2−20x−12y+35=0 lie on a circle of radius r and centre (a,b), then the value of ab+18r2 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 255
Approach:
Two conics S1=0 and S2=0 intersect, and the common points lie on a circle. The target is ab+18r2, found by forming the combination S1+λS2 whose x2 and y2 coefficients are equal (a circle through the intersections), then reading its centre and radius.
Step 1:In S1+λS2 the x2 coefficient is 1+4λ and the y2 coefficient is 2+2λ; equate them for a circle.
1+4λ=2+2λ⇒2λ=1⇒λ=21
Step 2:Form S1+21S2 by adding the two equations term by term.
(1+2)x2+(2+1)y2+(−6−10)x+(−12−6)y+(23+235)=0
Step 3:Divide by 3 to reach the standard circle form.
x2+y2−316x−6y+227=0
Step 4:Read the centre (a,b) from −2g=−316,−2f=−6 and compute r2.
(a,b)=(38,3),r2=(38)2+32−227=964+9−227=1847
Step 5:Compute the requested expression.
ab+18r2=38⋅3+18⋅1847=8+47=55
Final answer: 55
Q14Single correctPermutations and Combinations
The number of ways, in which 16 oranges can be distributed to four childrens such that each child gets at least one orange, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1455
Approach:
Given 16 identical oranges distributed among 4 distinct children with each receiving at least one. The target is the number of such distributions, obtained as the count of positive integer solutions via stars and bars.
Step 1:Model the distribution as positive integer solutions of an equation with n=16 oranges and k=4 children.
x1+x2+x3+x4=16,xi≥1
Step 2:Apply the stars-and-bars formula for the at-least-one constraint.
(4−116−1)=(315)
Step 3:Evaluate the binomial coefficient.
(315)=615⋅14⋅13=455
Final answer: 455
Q15Single correctIntegral Calculus
The area of the region enclosed between the circles x2+y2=4 and x2+(y−2)2=4 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 432(4π−33)
Approach:
Given two equal circles of radius 2 centred at (0,0) and (0,2), a distance d=2 apart. The target is the area of their common lens region, obtained by integrating the difference of the bounding arcs between the intersection abscissae.
Step 1:Find the intersection of the circles. Subtracting the equations x2+y2=4 and x2+(y−2)2=4 gives 4y−4=0, so y=1 and x=±3.
y=1,x=±3
Step 2:Between x=−3 and x=3 the lens is bounded above by the lower circle's upper arc y=4−x2 and below by the upper circle's lower arc y=2−4−x2.
A=∫−33[4−x2−(2−4−x2)]dx=∫−33(24−x2−2)dx
Step 3:Evaluate ∫−334−x2dx using the antiderivative; by symmetry it is twice the value on [0,3].
Step 4:Substitute and also compute ∫−332dx=43.
A=2(3+34π)−43=38π+23−43=38π−23
Step 5:Factor the result.
A=32(4π−33)
Final answer: 32(4π−33)
Q16Single correctVector Algebra
Let a=i^−2j^+3k^, b=2i^+j^−k^, c=λi^+j^+k^ and v=a×b. If v⋅c=11 and the length of the projection of b on c is p, then 9p2 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 312
Approach:
Given a=i^−2j^+3k^, b=2i^+j^−k^, c=λi^+j^+k^, v=a×b, and the condition v⋅c=11. The target is 9p2 where p=∣c∣∣b⋅c∣; first determine λ, then form the projection.
Step 1:Compute v=a×b by expanding the determinant.
Step 3:With λ=1, c=i^+j^+k^; compute b⋅c and ∣c∣.
b⋅c=2(1)+1(1)+(−1)(1)=2,∣c∣=12+12+12=3
Step 4:Form the projection length and square it.
p=∣c∣∣b⋅c∣=32⇒p2=34
Step 5:Multiply by 9.
9p2=9⋅34=12
Final answer: 12
Q17Single correctTrigonometry
The least value of (cos2θ−6sinθcosθ+3sin2θ+2) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 24−10
Approach:
Given the expression cos2θ−6sinθcosθ+3sin2θ+2 to minimize. The target is its least value, obtained by reducing it to a constant plus a single sinusoid in 2θ and applying the amplitude bound.
Step 1:Replace the squared terms and the product term with double-angle equivalents.
21+cos2θ−3sin2θ+3⋅21−cos2θ+2
Step 2:Combine the cosine and constant terms over a common denominator.
Step 4:The sinusoid cos2θ+3sin2θ has amplitude 12+32=10, so it ranges over [−10,10]; f is least when this sinusoid attains +10.
fmin=4−10
Final answer: 4−10
Q18Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
The sum of all the real solutions of the equation log(x+3)(6x2+28x+30)=5−2log(6x+10)(x2+6x+9) is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 30
Approach:
Given the equation log(x+3)(6x2+28x+30)=5−2log(6x+10)(x2+6x+9) with variable bases. The target is the sum of its real solutions, found by factoring the arguments, substituting a single logarithmic variable, and solving the resulting quadratic under domain constraints.
Step 1:Factor both arguments.
log(x+3)((x+3)(6x+10))=5−2log(6x+10)((x+3)2)
Step 2:Split the logarithms of products and powers.
1+log(x+3)(6x+10)=5−4log(6x+10)(x+3)
Step 3:Set t=log(x+3)(6x+10), so log(6x+10)(x+3)=t1, and clear fractions.
1+t=5−t4⇒t+t4=4⇒t2−4t+4=0
Step 4:Solve the perfect-square quadratic.
(t−2)2=0⇒t=2
Step 5:Convert back: t=2 means 6x+10=(x+3)2.
6x+10=x2+6x+9⇒x2=1⇒x=±1
Step 6:Check domains and add. For x=1 the bases are 4 and 16; for x=−1 the bases are 2 and 4, all positive and =1, so both are admissible.
1+(−1)=0
Final answer: 0
Q19Single correctSequence and Series
Let k=1∑nak=αn2+βn. If a10=59 and a6=7a1, then α+β is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 25
Approach:
Given the partial sum ∑k=1nak=αn2+βn, with a10=59 and a6=7a1. The target is α+β, obtained by extracting the general term from the sum and applying both conditions.
Step 1:Derive the general term from the sum.
an=(αn2+βn)−(α(n−1)2+β(n−1))=α(2n−1)+β=2αn−α+β
Step 2:Apply a10=59.
20α−α+β=19α+β=59
Step 3:Apply a6=7a1 with a1=α+β and a6=11α+β.
11α+β=7(α+β)⇒4α=6β⇒α=23β
Step 4:Substitute into 19α+β=59.
19⋅23β+β=257β+2β=259β=59⇒β=2
Step 5:Find α and add.
α=23⋅2=3,α+β=3+2=5
Final answer: 5
Q20Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
Let A(1,2) and C(−3,−6) be two diagonally opposite vertices of a rhombus, whose sides AD and BC are parallel to the line 7x−y=14. If B(α,β) and D(γ,δ) are the other two vertices, then ∣α+β+γ+δ∣ is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 26
Approach:
Given opposite vertices A(1,2) and C(−3,−6) of a rhombus with the remaining vertices B(α,β) and D(γ,δ). The target is ∣α+β+γ+δ∣; since the diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other, the coordinate sum of B and D is fixed by the midpoint of AC.
Step 1:The diagonals AC and BD share the same midpoint M.
M=(21+(−3),22+(−6))=(−1,−2)
Step 2:M is also the midpoint of BD, giving the coordinate sums of B and D.
2α+γ=−1,2β+δ=−2⇒α+γ=−2,β+δ=−4
Step 3:Add all four coordinates.
α+β+γ+δ=(α+γ)+(β+δ)=−2+(−4)=−6
Step 4:Take the absolute value.
∣α+β+γ+δ∣=∣−6∣=6
Final answer: 6
Q21NumericalMatrices and Determinants
Let A=0−2320−1−310 and B be a matrix such that B(I−A)=I+A. Then the sum of the diagonal elements of BTB is equal to ________.
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
Given the skew-symmetric matrix A and B defined by B(I−A)=I+A. The target is the sum of the diagonal elements of BTB, obtained by recognizing B as the Cayley transform of A, which is orthogonal.
Step 1:The given A satisfies aij=−aji, so it is skew-symmetric.
AT=−A
Step 2:Solve for B from the defining relation.
B=(I+A)(I−A)−1
Step 3:Transpose B using AT=−A and (M−1)T=(MT)−1.
BT=((I−A)−1)T(I+A)T=(I−AT)−1(I+AT)=(I+A)−1(I−A)
Step 4:Multiply to obtain BTB; the polynomials (I−A) and (I+A) in A commute, so they rearrange.
The number of elements in the set S={x:x∈[0,100] and ∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=x2} is ________.
SolutionAnswer: 16
Approach:
Given the integral equation ∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=x2 with x∈[0,100]. The target is the number of solutions, obtained by evaluating the integral in closed form and solving the resulting trigonometric equation.
Step 1:Set g(x)=∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt and differentiate; the boundary term x2sin0=0 vanishes.
g′(x)=∫0xt2cos(x−t)dt
Step 2:Differentiate again; the boundary term x2cos0=x2 appears.
g′′(x)=x2−∫0xt2sin(x−t)dt=x2−g(x)⇒g′′+g=x2
Step 3:Solve with g(0)=0 and g′(0)=0. The general solution is g=x2−2+Acosx+Bsinx; the conditions give A=2,B=0.
g(x)=x2−2+2cosx
Step 4:Set g(x)=x2.
x2−2+2cosx=x2⇒cosx=1
Step 5:Solve cosx=1 in [0,100]: x=2πk with 2πk≤100.
2πk≤100⇒k≤2π100≈15.92
Step 6:Count the admissible k.
k∈{0,1,…,15}⇒16 values
Final answer: 16
Q23NumericalThree Dimensional Geometry
If the image of the point P(a,2,a) in the line 2x=1y+a=1z is Q, and the image of Q in the line 2x−2b=1y−a=−5z+2b is P, then a+b is equal to ________.
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
Given P(a,2,a) whose mirror image in line L1:2x=1y+a=1z is Q, and the image of Q in line L2:2x−2b=1y−a=−5z+2b is P. The target is a+b, obtained by computing each reflection through the foot of perpendicular and forcing the composition to return P.
Step 1:Reflect P=(a,2,a) in L1 (point (0,−a,0), direction (2,1,1)). Write the foot R=(2λ,λ−a,λ) and impose (R−P)⋅(2,1,1)=0.
2(2λ−a)+(λ−a−2)+(λ−a)=0⇒6λ−4a−2=0⇒λ=32a+1
Step 2:Form Q=2R−P.
Q=(35a+4,−32a+4,3a+2)
Step 3:Reflect Q in L2 (point (2b,a,−2b), direction (2,1,−5)); the foot is S=(2b+2μ,a+μ,−2b−5μ) with (S−Q)⋅(2,1,−5)=0, and the image is 2S−Q.
Step 4:Set the image of Q equal to P=(a,2,a), giving three equations in a,b.
−35a+1532b−58=a,38a−1514b+56=2,−3a+32b=a
Step 5:Solve the system. The third equation gives b=2a; substituting into the others yields a=1.
b=2a,a=1⇒b=2
Step 6:Add the values.
a+b=1+2=3
Final answer: 3
Q24NumericalDifferential Equations
If the solution curve y=f(x) of the differential equation (x2−4)y′−2xy+2x(4−x2)2=0, x>2, passes through the point (3,15), then the local maximum value of f is ________.
SolutionAnswer: 16
Approach:
Given (x2−4)y′−2xy+2x(4−x2)2=0 for x>2 through (3,15). The target is the local maximum of f, obtained by solving the linear ODE with an integrating factor, fixing the constant, and locating the maximum.
Step 1:Divide by (x2−4) and use (4−x2)2=(x2−4)2 to simplify the last term.
y′−x2−42xy=−x2−42x(x2−4)2=−2x(x2−4)
Step 2:Compute the integrating factor for x>2 (so x2−4>0).
μ=e−∫x2−42xdx=e−ln(x2−4)=x2−41
Step 3:Multiply through; the left side becomes a total derivative.
dxd(x2−4y)=−2x⇒x2−4y=−x2+c
Step 4:Apply the point (3,15).
9−415=−9+c⇒3=c−9⇒c=12
Step 5:Write the solution and complete the square in x2.
y=(x2−4)(12−x2)=−x4+16x2−48=16−(x2−8)2
Step 6:The maximum of 16−(x2−8)2 occurs at x2=8, i.e. x=22>2, where the squared term vanishes.
fmax=16−0=16
Final answer: 16
Q25NumericalPermutations and Combinations
Let S denote the set of 4-digit numbers abcd such that a>b>c>d and P denoted the set of 5-digit numbers having product of its digits equal to 20. Then n(S)+n(P) is equal to ________.
SolutionAnswer: 260
Approach:
Given S = 4-digit numbers abcd with a>b>c>d, and P = 5-digit numbers whose digit product is 20. The target is n(S)+n(P), obtained by a selection count for S and by factoring 20 into digit multisets for P.
Step 1:For S, any choice of 4 distinct digits from {0,1,…,9} arranges uniquely in strictly decreasing order; the leading digit is the largest, which is nonzero, so every choice is valid.
n(S)=(410)=210
Step 2:For P, the product 20 forbids any zero digit and requires the factor 5, which can only be the digit 5 (since 5∤ any other single digit's contribution beyond one 5); the remaining four digits then multiply to 4.
20=22⋅5=5⋅(2⋅2)=5⋅4
Step 3:Distribute the product 4 over four digits (≥1): either as 4⋅1⋅1⋅1 or 2⋅2⋅1⋅1, giving the digit multisets.
{5,4,1,1,1},{5,2,2,1,1}
Step 4:Count arrangements of each multiset across the 5 digit positions.
3!5!=20,2!2!5!=30
Step 5:Sum the arrangements for n(P) (no leading-zero issue since no digit is 0).
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2026 January 23, Shift 2 paper?
The JEE Main 2026 January 23, Shift 2 paper has 75 questions — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (25). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
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