JEE Main 2026 January 28, Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions
All 74 questions from the JEE Main 2026 (January 28, Shift 1) shift — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (24) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
A block of mass 5 kg is moving on an inclined plane which makes an angle of 30∘ with the horizontal. Friction coefficient between the block and the inclined plane surface is 23. The force to be applied on the block so that the block will move down without acceleration is ______ N. (g=10m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 312.5
Approach:
Givens: m=5kg, θ=30∘, μ=23, g=10m/s2. Target: the applied force along the incline that produces zero acceleration while the block slides down. Principle: resolve forces along and perpendicular to the incline; since the block moves down, kinetic friction acts up the incline.
Step 1:Compute the gravity component along the incline acting down the plane.
mgsinθ=5×10×sin30∘=50×21
Step 2:Compute the maximum kinetic friction, which acts up the incline opposing downward sliding.
μmgcosθ=23×5×10×cos30∘=23×50×23=50×43
Step 3:Friction up the incline (37.5N) exceeds gravity down the incline (25N); for sliding down at constant velocity an extra force down the incline is required to balance the net up-slope force.
F=μmgcosθ−mgsinθ=37.5−25
Final answer: 12.5N
Q27Single correctOptics
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: A plane wave after passing through prism remains as plane wave but passing through small pin hole may become spherical wave.
Statement II: The curvature of a spherical wave emerging from a slit will increase for increasing slit width.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Approach:
Two statements concern how a wavefront is reshaped by optical elements. Huygens' principle, in which each point of a wavefront launches secondary spherical wavelets whose envelope forms the next wavefront, fixes the outcome for a prism, a pinhole and a slit.
Step 1:A prism refracts a plane wavefront uniformly, tilting and slowing it while keeping it planar, so a plane wave stays plane after a prism.
prism:plane wave→plane wave
Step 2:A pinhole is an aperture far smaller than the wavefront, so it acts as a single secondary source and emits an essentially spherical wave; combining both facts, Statement I is correct.
pinhole:plane wave→spherical wave
Step 3:For a slit, diffraction and hence wavefront curvature grow as the slit narrows and diminish as the slit widens. Statement II asserts curvature increases with increasing slit width, the reverse of the true dependence, so it is false.
slit width↑⇒curvature↓
Final answer: Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q28Single correctOptics
The magnitudes of power of a biconvex lens (refractive index 1.5) and that of a plano-concave lens (refractive index = 1.7) are same. If the curvature of plano-concave lens exactly matches with the curvature of back surface of the biconvex lens, then ratio of radius of curvature of front and back surface of the biconvex lens is ______.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 25:2
Approach:
Givens: biconvex lens of μ=1.5 with surface radii of magnitude R1 (front) and R2 (back); plano-concave lens of μ=1.7 whose curved face matches the back surface, so its curved radius is R2; the two powers are equal in magnitude. Target: R1:R2. Principle: lens maker's formula with magnitudes of surface contributions.
Step 1:For the biconvex lens both surfaces converge light, so the magnitudes of the two surface contributions add.
∣P1∣=(1.5−1)(R11+R21)=0.5(R11+R21)
Step 2:For the plano-concave lens one face is flat (R=∞) and the curved face has radius R2.
∣P2∣=(1.7−1)(R21)=0.7(R21)
Step 3:Equate the magnitudes of the two powers and isolate the R1 term.
In the potentiometer, when the cell in the secondary circuit is shunted with 4Ω resistance, the balance is obtained at the length 120 cm of wire. Now when the same cell is shunted with 12Ω resistance, the balance is shifted to a length of 180 cm. The internal resistance of cell is ______ Ω.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 24
Approach:
Givens: a cell shunted by R1=4Ω balances at l1=120cm and by R2=12Ω balances at l2=180cm. Target: internal resistance r. Principle: the balance length is proportional to the terminal voltage R+rER across the shunt.
Step 1:Form the ratio of the two balance conditions, the emf cancelling.
Water drops fall from a tap on the floor, 5 m below at regular intervals of time. The first drop strikes the floor when the sixth drop begins to fall. The height at which the fourth drop will be from ground at the instant when the first drop strikes the ground is ______ m. (g=10m/s2)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 24.2
Approach:
Givens: drops fall from a tap 5m above the floor at equal time intervals τ; the first drop strikes the floor as the sixth begins to fall; g=10m/s2. Target: the height of the fourth drop above the ground at the instant the first drop lands. Principle: distance in free fall is proportional to the square of the elapsed time.
Step 1:Five equal intervals separate drop 1 and drop 6, so when drop 1 lands it has fallen for 5τ and the fourth drop (released two intervals after the first) has fallen for 2τ.
t1=5τ,t4=2τ
Step 2:Drop 1 covers the full 5m in time 5τ, fixing the relation 21g(5τ)2=5.
21g(5τ)2=5
Step 3:Distance fallen by the fourth drop in time 2τ.
s4=21g(2τ)2=4×21gτ2=4×0.2
Step 4:Height above the ground equals total height minus distance fallen.
h4=5−0.8
Final answer: 4.2m
Q31Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
The electric field of an electromagnetic wave travelling through a medium is given by E(x,t)=25sin(2.0×107t−10−1x)n^. Then the refractive index of the medium is ______. (All given measurements are in SI units)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 21.5
Approach:
Givens: electric field E(x,t)=25sin(2.0×107t−10−1x)n^ in SI units. Target: refractive index of the medium. Principle: the phase velocity follows from ω and k, and the refractive index is the ratio of the vacuum light speed to this velocity.
Step 1:Compare with E=E0sin(ωt−kx) to read the angular frequency and wave number.
ω=2.0×107rad/s,k=10−1m−1
Step 2:Compute the wave speed in the medium.
v=kω=10−12.0×107
Step 3:Divide the vacuum speed of light by the medium speed.
μ=vc=2×1083×108
Final answer: 1.5
Q32Single correctThermodynamics
In the following p-V diagram the equation of state along the curved path is given by (V−2)2=4ap, where a is a constant. The total work done in the closed path is ______.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1−3a1
Approach:
Givens: closed cycle on a p-V diagram with the curved part obeying (V−2)2=4ap; the parabola has its vertex (point B) at V=2,p=0 and rises to A(V=1) and C(V=3), which are joined by a horizontal segment CA at the top. Target: net work over the closed path. Principle: work in a cycle equals the signed area enclosed, W=∮pdV.
Step 1:Evaluate the pressure at the end volumes V=1 and V=3; both give the top level of the loop.
p(1)=p(3)=4a(1−2)2=4a1
Step 2:Area under the parabolic path from V=1 to V=3 (the lower boundary A→B→C).
∫134a(V−2)2dV=4a1∫−11u2du=4a1⋅32
Step 3:Area under the horizontal top segment CA from V=1 to V=3 at p=4a1.
4a1×(3−1)
Step 4:Traversal A→B→C increases V along the lower parabola, and C→A decreases V along the upper line; this counterclockwise sense makes the net work the lower-area contribution minus the upper-area contribution.
W=6a1−2a1=6a1−3
Final answer: −3a1
Q33Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
Which of the following best represents the temperature versus heat supplied graph for water, in the range of -20∘C to 120∘C?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Heating curve starting at -20°C with horizontal plateaus at 0°C and 100°C, ending at 120°C (option 4)
Approach:
Givens: water heated from −20∘C to 120∘C; option graphs of temperature versus heat supplied. Target: the correct heating curve. Principle: temperature rises during single-phase heating (Q=mcΔT) and stays constant during a phase change (Q=mL).
Step 1:From −20∘C to 0∘C the ice warms, so temperature rises with heat.
−20∘C→0∘C:Tincreases
Step 2:At 0∘C the ice melts at constant temperature while heat is absorbed.
at 0∘C:Tconstant
Step 3:From 0∘C to 100∘C the liquid warms, temperature rising with heat.
0∘C→100∘C:Tincreases
Step 4:At 100∘C the water boils at constant temperature while heat is absorbed.
at 100∘C:Tconstant
Step 5:From 100∘C to 120∘C the steam warms, temperature rising again.
100∘C→120∘C:Tincreases
Final answer: Heating curve starting at −20∘C with horizontal plateaus at 0∘C (melting) and 100∘C (boiling), then rising to 120∘C.
Q34Single correctMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
The magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop of radius R is 16 μT. The magnetic field at a distance x=3R on its axis from the centre is ______ μT.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12
Approach:
Givens: field at the centre of a circular current loop B0=16μT; axial point at x=3R. Target: axial field B. Principle: the axial field of a loop scales as (R2/(R2+x2))3/2 relative to the centre value.
Step 1:Form the ratio of the axial field to the central field.
B0B=(R2+x2R2)3/2
Step 2:Substitute x=3R, giving R2+x2=4R2.
B=16(4R2R2)3/2=16(41)3/2
Step 3:Evaluate the product.
B=2μT
Final answer: 2μT
Q35Single correctMagnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
Three long straight wires carrying current are arranged mutually parallel as shown in the figure. The force experienced by 15 cm length of wire Q is ______. (μ0=4π×10−7T.m/A)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 26×10−6N towards R
Approach:
Wire Q (current 1 A directed downward) lies between wire P (3 A directed upward, 3 cm to its left) and wire R (2 A directed downward, 2 cm to its right). Antiparallel currents repel and parallel currents attract; applying the standard force per unit length to each neighbour and combining the two contributions gives the net force on a 15 cm length of Q.
Step 4:Both contributions point toward R, so they add directly to give the net force on Q.
F=FP+FR=3×10−6+3×10−6=6×10−6Ntoward R
Final answer: 6×10−6N towards R
Q36Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
An atom 38X is bombarded by shower of fundamental particles and in 10 s this atom absorbed 10 electrons, 10 protons and 9 neutrons. The percentage growth in the surface area of the nucleons is recorded by: ______
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2225%
Approach:
Givens: nucleus 38X (Ai=8) absorbs 10 electrons, 10 protons and 9 neutrons. Target: the percentage change in nuclear surface area as reported. Principle: nuclear radius scales as A1/3, so surface area scales as A2/3; only nucleons (protons, neutrons) change the mass number.
Step 1:Electrons do not contribute to the mass number; added protons and neutrons raise it.
Af=8+10+9=27
Step 2:Form the surface-area ratio.
SiSf=(AiAf)2/3=(827)2/3=(23)2
Step 3:Express the surface-area ratio as a percentage, as reported in the paper.
SiSf×100=49×100
Final answer: 225%
Q37Single correctElectromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents
The electric current in the circuit is given as i=i0(t/T). The r.m.s current for the period t=0 to t=T is ______.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 13i0
Approach:
Givens: current i=i0(t/T) over t=0 to t=T. Target: the r.m.s. current over this interval. Principle: the r.m.s. value is the square root of the time-averaged square of the current.
Step 1:Substitute the current into the mean-square expression.
T1∫0T(Ti0t)2dt=T3i02∫0Tt2dt
Step 2:Evaluate the integral.
T3i02[3t3]0T=T3i02⋅3T3
Step 3:Take the square root of the mean square.
irms=3i02
Final answer: 3i0
Q38Single correctExperimental Skills
When both jaws of vernier callipers touch each other, zero mark of the vernier scale is right to zero mark of main scale. 4th mark on vernier scale coincides with certain mark on the main scale. While measuring the length of a cylinder, observer observes 15 divisions on main scale and 5th division on vernier scale coincides with a main scale division. Measured length of cylinder is ______ mm. (Least count of Vernier calliper = 0.1 mm)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 215.1
Approach:
Givens: with jaws touching, the vernier zero lies to the right of the main-scale zero and the 4th vernier division coincides (positive zero error); least count LC=0.1mm; while measuring, 15 main-scale divisions are read and the 5th vernier division coincides. Target: corrected measured length. Principle: corrected reading equals observed reading minus the positive zero error.
Step 1:The vernier zero is to the right of the main-scale zero with the 4th division coinciding, giving a positive zero error.
zero error=+4×0.1=+0.4mm
Step 2:Compute the observed reading from 15 main-scale divisions (each 1mm) and the coinciding 5th vernier division.
observed=15+5×0.1=15+0.5
Step 3:Subtract the positive zero error from the observed reading.
length=15.5−0.4
Final answer: 15.1mm
Q39Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
Two wires A and B made of different materials of lengths 6.0 cm and 5.4 cm, respectively and area of cross sections 3.0×10−5m2 and 4.5×10−5m2, respectively are stretched by the same magnitude under a given load. The ratio of the Young's modulus of A to that of B is x : 3. The value of x is ______.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 35
Approach:
Given wire A of length lA=6.0 cm and area AA=3.0×10−5m2, wire B of length lB=5.4 cm and area AB=4.5×10−5m2, both stretched by the same elongation under the same load. Target: the value of x where YA:YB=x:3. Principle: Young's modulus relates load, length, area and elongation.
Step 1:With identical load F and identical elongation Δl for both wires, the ratio of moduli depends only on length and area.
YBYA=FlB/(ABΔl)FlA/(AAΔl)=lBAAlAAB
Step 2:Substituting the lengths in cm and the areas in m2 (the common factors cancel).
YBYA=(5.4)(3.0×10−5)(6.0)(4.5×10−5)=16.227
Step 3:Matching the reduced ratio with the stated form x:3.
3x=35
Final answer: 5
Q40Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
10 kg of ice at −10∘C is added to 100 kg of water to lower its temperature from 25 ∘C. Consider no heat exchange to surroundings. The decrement to the temperature of water is ______ ∘C. (Specific heat of ice = 2100 J/Kg.∘C, specific heat of water = 4200 J/Kg.∘C, latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36×105 J/Kg)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 210
Approach:
Given 10 kg ice at −10∘C added to 100 kg water at 25∘C with no heat loss; cice=2100 J/kg⋅∘C, cwater=4200 J/kg⋅∘C, Lf=3.36×105 J/kg. Target: the decrement of the water temperature. Principle: conservation of heat (heat lost equals heat gained).
Step 1:Heat absorbed by the ice equals warming it from −10∘C to 0∘C, melting it, and warming the melt water from 0∘C to the final temperature T.
Qgain=(10)(2100)(10)+(10)(3.36×105)+(10)(4200)T
Step 2:Heat released by the 100 kg of water cooling from 25∘C to T.
Qloss=(100)(4200)(25−T)
Step 3:Equating heat lost to heat gained and solving for the final temperature T.
420000(25−T)=3570000+42000T⇒6930000=462000T
Step 4:The decrement is the drop in the water temperature from its initial value to T.
ΔT=25−15
Final answer: 10∘C
Q41Single correctRotational Motion
Two circular discs of radius each 10 cm are joined at their centres by a rod of length 30 cm and mass 600 gm as shown in figure. If the mass of each disc is 600 gm and applied torque between two discs is 43×105 dyne.cm, the angular acceleration of the discs about the given axis AB is ______ rad/s2.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 111
Approach:
Two identical discs (each mass m=0.6 kg, radius R=0.1 m) sit at the ends of a rod (mass 0.6 kg, length L=0.30 m) and the assembly turns about the axis AB through the rod's centre, perpendicular to the rod. The total moment of inertia about AB is built from the two discs (parallel-axis theorem) and the rod, then the applied torque is divided by it.
Step 1:Convert the applied torque to SI units.
τ=43×105dyne⋅cm=43×105×10−7N⋅m=0.43N⋅m
Step 2:Each disc centre lies at half the rod length from the axis, l=L/2=0.15 m. Combine the disc's central inertia with the parallel-axis term.
Step 3:Compute the rod's moment of inertia about the perpendicular axis through its centre.
Irod=121(0.6)(0.30)2=0.0045kg⋅m2
Step 4:Sum the contributions of both discs and the rod.
I=2(0.0165)+0.0045=0.0375kg⋅m2
Step 5:Divide the torque by the total moment of inertia.
α=Iτ=0.03750.43=11.5rad/s2
Final answer: 11rad/s2
Q42Single correctCurrent Electricity
For the two cells having same EMF E and internal resistance r, the current passing through the external resistor 6 Ω is same when both the cells are connected either in parallel or in series. The value of internal resistance r is ______ Ω.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 26
Approach:
Given two cells each of EMF E and internal resistance r feeding an external resistor R=6Ω, with the external current equal in the series and parallel configurations. Target: the value of r. Principle: the loop current equals equivalent EMF divided by total resistance.
Step 1:In parallel the equivalent EMF is E and the equivalent internal resistance is r/2, giving the external current.
Iparallel=R+2rE=6+2rE
Step 2:In series the equivalent EMF is 2E and the equivalent internal resistance is 2r.
Iseries=R+2r2E=6+2r2E
Step 3:Setting the two external currents equal and cancelling 2E.
12+r1=6+2r1⇒6+2r=12+r
Final answer: 6Ω
Q43Single correctElectrostatics
Two point charges of 1 nC and 2 nC are placed at the two corners of equilateral triangle of side 3 cm. The work done in bringing a charge of 3 nC from infinity to the third corner of the triangle is ______ μJ. 4πε01=9×109N.m2/C2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 22.7
Approach:
Given charges q1=1 nC and q2=2 nC fixed at two corners of an equilateral triangle of side a=3 cm =0.03 m, and a charge q=3 nC brought from infinity to the third corner, with 4πε01=9×109N⋅m2/C2. Target: the work done. Principle: work equals the change in electrostatic potential energy.
Step 1:The third corner is at distance a from each fixed charge, so the work equals the sum of the two interaction energies of q with q1 and q2.
W=4πε01aqq1+4πε01aqq2=4πε01aq(q1+q2)
Step 2:Substituting q=3×10−9 C, q1+q2=3×10−9 C, a=0.03 m and the Coulomb constant.
W=(9×109)3×10−2(3×10−9)(3×10−9)
Step 3:Evaluating the arithmetic.
W=3×10−28.1×10−8=2.7×10−6J
Final answer: 2.7μJ
Q44Single correctProperties of Solids and Liquids
Particle of mass m falls from rest through a resistive medium having resistive force F=−kv, where v is the velocity of the particle and k is a constant. Which of the following graphs represents velocity (v) versus time (t)?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2v=kmg(1−e−kt/m)
Approach:
Given a particle of mass m released from rest in a medium with resistive force F=−kv (k constant). Target: identify the v versus t graph. Principle: Newton's second law produces a first-order linear differential equation whose solution saturates to a terminal velocity.
Step 1:The net downward force is gravity reduced by the resistive force, giving the equation of motion.
mdtdv=mg−kv⇒dtdv=g−mkv
Step 2:Separating variables and integrating from v=0 at t=0.
∫0vg−mkvdv=∫0tdt
Step 3:At t=0 the velocity is zero, and as t→∞ it approaches the terminal velocity, so the curve rises from the origin and flattens to a horizontal asymptote.
v→kmgast→∞
Final answer: v=kmg(1−e−kt/m)
Q45Single correctElectronic Devices
Assuming in forward bias condition there is a voltage drop of 0.7 V across a silicon diode, the current through diode D1 in the circuit is ______ mA. (Assume all diodes in the given circuit are identical)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 418.8
Approach:
A 12 V source feeds three identical silicon diodes (VD=0.7 V) through a series resistor R1=0.3kΩ. The diode orientations in the figure decide which branches conduct, after which the series current and its division give the current through D1.
Step 1:From the circuit, D1 and D3 are forward biased while D2 is reverse biased, so D2 blocks and only the two forward branches carry current.
D2reverse biased⇒iD2=0
Step 2:The total current from the source flows through R1 after a single forward diode drop of 0.7 V.
i=0.3×10312−0.7=30011.3=37.67mA
Step 3:The two identical conducting diodes are in parallel across the same node pair, so they share the total current equally; the current through D1 is half.
iD1=2i=237.67=18.8mA
Final answer: 18.8mA
Q46NumericalOscillations and Waves
The displacement of a particle, executing simple harmonic motion with time period T, is expressed as x(t)=Asinωt, where A is the amplitude. The maximum value of potential energy of this oscillator is found at t=T/2β. The value of β is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
For an oscillator x(t)=Asinωt the potential energy is proportional to x2, so it peaks where the displacement is largest. Equating the first such instant to the given form t=T/(2β) fixes β.
Step 1:Potential energy is maximum when the displacement reaches the amplitude, ∣x∣=A.
Asinωt=A⇒sinωt=1⇒ωt=2π
Step 2:Substitute ω=2π/T to obtain the first instant of maximum potential energy.
T2πt=2π⇒t=4T
Step 3:Match this instant to the given expression t=T/(2β) and solve.
2βT=4T⇒2β=4⇒β=2
Final answer: 2
Q47NumericalCurrent Electricity
The equivalent resistance between the points A and B in the following circuit is 5xΩ. The value of x is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 21
Approach:
From the figure: terminal A at top-left, terminal B at bottom-right. Top path A−6Ω−C−3Ω−B; bottom path A−3Ω−D−6Ω−B; a 3Ω resistor bridges C to D. Target: the value of x where RAB=x/5Ω. Principle: this is an unbalanced Wheatstone bridge, solved by nodal analysis (or delta-star reduction).
Step 1:Check balance: the arm ratios RCBRAC=36=2 and RDBRAD=63=0.5 are unequal, so the bridge is unbalanced and the 3Ω bridge arm carries current.
36=63
Step 2:Inject 1 A at A, take it out at B, and set VB=0. Writing KCL at A, C and D gives three equations in VA,VC,VD.
Step 3:With 1 A injected and VB=0, the equivalent resistance equals VA.
RAB=IVA−VB=14.2=521Ω
Step 4:Matching with the stated form x/5.
5x=521
Final answer: 21
Q48NumericalDual Nature of Matter and Radiation
The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of a deuteron with kinetic energy E to that of an alpha particle with kinetic energy 2E, is n : 1. The value of n is ______. (Assume mass of proton = mass of neutron).
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
Given a deuteron (mass 2u) with kinetic energy E and an alpha particle (mass 4u) with kinetic energy 2E, with proton and neutron masses taken equal. Target: the value of n where λd:λα=n:1. Principle: the de Broglie wavelength relates to mass and kinetic energy through momentum p=2mE.
Step 1:Forming the ratio of the deuteron wavelength to the alpha particle wavelength with their respective masses and kinetic energies.
A solid sphere of radius 10 cm is rotating about an axis which is at a distance 15 cm from its centre. The radius of gyration of this axis is n cm. The value of n is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 265
Approach:
Given a solid sphere of radius R=10 cm rotating about an axis at distance d=15 cm from its centre, with radius of gyration K=n cm. Target: the value of n. Principle: the moment of inertia about the external axis follows from the parallel-axis theorem and equals mK2.
Step 1:Applying the parallel-axis theorem and equating to mK2, then cancelling the mass.
mK2=52mR2+md2⇒K2=52R2+d2
Step 2:Substituting R=10 cm and d=15 cm (lengths in cm so K2 is in cm2).
K2=52(10)2+(15)2=40+225
Step 3:Matching with K=n cm.
K=265cm
Final answer: 265
Q50NumericalOptics
A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length f = 18 cm is immersed in water. The difference in focal lengths of the given lens when it is in water and in air is n×f. The value of n is ______. (refractive index of water = 4/3)
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
Given a convex lens of refractive index ng=1.5 with focal length f=18 cm in air, immersed in water (nw=4/3); the focal-length difference is n×f. Target: the value of n. Principle: the lens maker formula links focal length to the relative refractive index of the lens material with respect to its surroundings.
Step 1:In air the surrounding index is 1, giving the air focal length in terms of the surface term.
181=(1.5−1)(R11−R21)=0.5(R11−R21)
Step 2:In water the surrounding index is 4/3, giving the water focal length with the same surface term S.
fw1=(4/31.5−1)S=(1.125−1)S=0.125S
Step 3:Dividing the two relations eliminates S and gives the water focal length.
ffw=0.1250.5=4⇒fw=4×18
Step 4:Expressing the difference of focal lengths as a multiple of the air focal length.
fw−f=72−18=54=n×18
Final answer: 3
Chemistry25 questions
Q51Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
20.0dm3 of an ideal gas 'X' at 600 K and 0.5 MPa undergoes isothermal reversible expansion until pressure of the gas is 0.2 MPa. Which of the following option is correct? (Given: log2=0.3010 and log5=0.6989)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4w=−9.1J,ΔU=0,ΔH=0,q=9.1kJ
Approach:
An ideal gas at 600 K expands isothermally and reversibly from 0.5 MPa to 0.2 MPa, starting at 20.0 dm3. For an isothermal change of an ideal gas the internal energy and enthalpy depend only on temperature, so both are zero. The reversible work is evaluated from the isothermal work expression and the heat follows from the first law.
Step 1:For an ideal gas at constant temperature, internal energy and enthalpy are functions of temperature alone and therefore do not change.
ΔU=0,ΔH=0
Step 2:The product nRT equals the initial pressure times volume. With P1=0.5MPa=0.5×106Pa and V1=20.0dm3=20.0×10−3m3, this gives the energy scale of the process and corresponds to about two moles of gas.
nRT=P1V1=0.5×106×20.0×10−3=1.0×104J
Step 3:The pressure ratio for the reversible isothermal work is P1/P2=0.5/0.2=2.5, and log2.5=log5−log2=0.6989−0.3010=0.3979.
lnP2P1=2.303log2.5=2.303×0.3979=0.9163
Step 4:Insert the values into the reversible isothermal work expression. The gas expands, so it performs work on the surroundings and the work done on the gas is negative.
w=−nRTlnP2P1=−1.0×104×0.9163=−9.16×103J
Step 5:Since the internal energy is unchanged, the first law gives heat equal in magnitude and opposite in sign to the work; heat is absorbed during the expansion.
q=−w=+9.1kJ
Final answer: w≈−9.1kJ,ΔU=0,ΔH=0,q≈+9.1kJ
Q52Single correctEquilibrium
Consider a weak base 'B' of pKb=5.699. 'x' mL of 0.02 M HCl and 'y' mL of 0.02 M weak base 'B' are mixed to make 100 mL of a buffer of pH 9 at 25 ∘C. The values of 'x' and 'y' respectively are: (Given: log2=0.3010, log3=0.4771, log5=0.699)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2x14.3y85.7
Approach:
A weak base B (pKb = 5.699) is partly neutralised by strong acid HCl to form a basic buffer of the conjugate acid BH+ and the leftover base B in a total volume of 100 mL. The target pH 9 fixes pOH = 5, the Henderson equation for the base relates the salt-to-base ratio, and the volume balance x + y = 100 closes the system.
Step 1:Convert the target pH to pOH for the basic buffer.
pOH=14−9=5
Step 2:HCl (0.02x mmol) neutralises an equal amount of base to form the conjugate acid salt BH+; the unreacted base is the original base minus the neutralised portion. Both salt and base share the same 100 mL volume, so the concentration ratio reduces to the mole ratio.
[salt]∝0.02x,[base]∝0.02(y−x)
Step 3:Apply the Henderson equation and isolate the logarithm.
5=5.699+logy−xx
Step 4:Since log 5 = 0.699, the antilog of -0.699 is 1/5; solve the ratio for the relation between y and x.
y−xx=10−0.699=51=0.2
Step 5:Substitute into the volume balance and solve.
x+6x=100⇒7x=100
Final answer: x14.3y85.7
Q53Single correctAtomic Structure
Which of the following point in Figure 2 most accurately represents the nodal surface as shown in Figure 1?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2B
Approach:
The spherical nodal surface of the 2s orbital is its radial node, the radius at which the wave function ψ2s passes through zero and reverses sign. Locating that zero crossing on the Figure 2 plot identifies the labelled point.
Step 1:The 2s orbital has exactly one radial node; the spherical nodal surface in Figure 1 marks the radius where the electron probability density falls to zero.
2s:one radial node
Step 2:On the Figure 2 curve, point A is the maximum near the ψ axis and point C is the negative minimum, so the curve crosses zero somewhere between them.
A:ψ2s>0,C:ψ2s<0
Step 3:The point where ψ2s=0 and the sign changes is labelled B, so B represents the nodal surface.
ψ2s=0at point B
Final answer: B
Q54Single correctBiomolecules
In the given pentapeptide, find out an essential amino acid (Y) and the sequence present in the pentapeptide:
Each residue of the pentapeptide is named from its side chain read from the N-terminal H2N end to the C-terminal COOH end; the essential amino acid among them is identified, and the residues are listed in order to obtain the sequence.
Step 1:From the N-terminal H2N end, the first alpha-carbon carries a side chain bearing both an OH and a CH3 on the beta carbon, the threonine side chain; the second residue carries -CH2OH (serine); the third carries -CH2COOH (aspartic acid); the fourth carries -H (glycine); the fifth, ending in COOH, carries -CH3 (alanine).
Thr−Ser−Asp−Gly−Ala
Step 2:Among these five residues, threonine is the essential amino acid (it cannot be synthesised by the body), so Y is threonine.
Y:H3C−CH(OH)−(threonine)
Step 3:Reading the chain from the free amino end to the free carboxyl end gives the primary sequence.
Thr−Ser−Asp−Gly−Ala
Final answer: (Y)Threonine(Sequence)Thr−Ser−Asp−Gly−Ala
Q55Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
In period 4 of the periodic table, the elements with highest and lowest atomic radii are respectively.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1K\ &\ Br
Approach:
Atomic radius across a period is set by the competition between rising effective nuclear charge and electrons filling the same principal shell. Applying this trend across period 4 identifies the largest and smallest atoms.
Step 1:Across a period the effective nuclear charge rises while electrons enter the same shell, so atomic radius decreases from left to right.
period 4:radius decreases K→Kr
Step 2:Potassium opens period 4 as the group-1 element with one loosely held 4s electron, giving the largest atomic radius of the period.
K:largest radius (∼235pm)
Step 3:Toward the right the radius is smallest at bromine among the representative elements, whose high effective nuclear charge contracts the 4p shell.
Br:smallest representative radius (∼114pm)
Final answer: K\ &\ Br
Q56Single correctCoordination Compounds
The correct statement among the following is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2− are diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2− is paramagnetic
Approach:
The oxidation state of nickel and the field strength of the ligand together fix the d-electron count, the geometry, and the number of unpaired electrons, which determine whether each complex is diamagnetic or paramagnetic.
Step 1:In Ni(CO)4 nickel is in the zero oxidation state with a 3d10 configuration after rearrangement; CO is a strong-field ligand and the complex is sp3 tetrahedral with every electron paired, hence diamagnetic.
Ni(0):3d10,sp3⇒0 unpaired
Step 2:In [Ni(CN)4]2- nickel is Ni2+ (d8); the strong-field cyanide ligand forces pairing, giving a dsp2 square-planar complex with no unpaired electrons, hence diamagnetic.
Ni2+:d8,dsp2(square planar)⇒0 unpaired
Step 3:In [NiCl4]2- nickel is again Ni2+ (d8); chloride is a weak-field ligand, so the complex is sp3 tetrahedral with two unpaired electrons, hence paramagnetic.
Ni2+:d8,sp3(tetrahedral)⇒2 unpaired
Final answer: Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2− are diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2− is paramagnetic
Q57Single correctChemical Kinetics
An organic compound undergoes first order decomposition. The time taken for decomposition to (81)th and (101)th of its initial concentration are t1/8 and t1/10 respectively. What is the value of t1/10t1/8×10 ? (log 2 = 0.3)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 49
Approach:
For a first-order decomposition the time to reach a given fraction of the initial concentration is proportional to the logarithm of the ratio of initial to final concentration. Taking the ratio of the two times cancels the rate constant, leaving a ratio of logarithms.
Step 1:Decomposition to one-eighth leaves [A] = [A0]/8, so the logarithmic factor is log 8; decomposition to one-tenth leaves [A] = [A0]/10, so the factor is log 10.
t1/8=k2.303log8,t1/10=k2.303log10
Step 2:Form the ratio; the constant 2.303/k cancels, and log 8 = 3 log 2 = 3(0.3) = 0.9 while log 10 = 1.
t1/10t1/8=log10log8=13×0.3=0.9
Step 3:Multiply by ten as required by the question.
Given below are two statements for the following reaction sequence.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Approach:
Compound X (C3H6Cl2) on double dehydrohalogenation with excess NaNH2 yields propyne (Y). Markovnikov hydration of propyne with dil. H2SO4 and Hg2+ gives acetone (Z), tested against the iodoform reaction. Cyclic trimerisation of propyne over a red-hot iron tube gives mesitylene (Q, C9H12), whose hydrogen environments are counted.
Step 1:X is a dichloropropane (C3H6Cl2). Excess sodamide removes two molecules of HCl to build a carbon-carbon triple bond, giving propyne as compound Y.
C3H6Cl2excess NaNH2CH3−C≡CH(Y)
Step 2:Propyne undergoes Markovnikov hydration with dil. H2SO4 and Hg2+; water adds with OH on the more substituted carbon, and the resulting enol tautomerises to acetone, a methyl ketone (Z). A methyl ketone responds to the iodoform reaction with NaOI to give the yellow precipitate of iodoform.
CH3−C≡CHH2SO4,Hg2+CH3−CO−CH3(Z)
Step 3:Three molecules of propyne trimerise over a red-hot iron tube to 1,3,5-trimethylbenzene (mesitylene), C9H12. It carries 3 aromatic H on the ring and 9 aliphatic H in the three methyl groups, an aromatic-to-aliphatic ratio of 3 : 9 = 1 : 3.
3CH3−C≡CHred hot FeC9H12(Q)
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
SolutionAnswer: Option 4Compound x is more acidic than compound y.
Approach:
The elemental data and the colour with neutral FeCl3 identify compound x as phenol. The Kolbe-Schmitt reaction (CO2/NaOH at high pressure, then acidification) converts phenol to salicylic acid (y). Each statement is evaluated and the false one is selected.
Step 1:Vapour density 47 gives molar mass 94, matching C6H5OH; carbon 76.6% and hydrogen 6.38% fit C6H6O, and a characteristic colour with neutral FeCl3 is diagnostic of a phenol. Thus x is phenol.
M=2×47=94⇒C6H5OH
Step 2:Phenol treated with CO2 and NaOH at about 120 C under high pressure, followed by acidification, undergoes the Kolbe-Schmitt reaction to give salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid), bearing an OH and an ortho COOH; salicylic acid is y and also gives a colour with neutral FeCl3 owing to its phenolic OH.
y=salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid)
Step 3:Statement 1: both phenol and salicylic acid have acidic OH/COOH groups and dissolve in NaOH (true). Statement 2: salicylic acid contains a carboxylic acid group, so it dissolves in NaHCO3 with evolution of CO2 (true). Statement 3: both are aromatic with high carbon-to-hydrogen content and burn with a sooty flame (true). Statement 4: salicylic acid (a carboxylic acid) is more acidic than phenol, so the claim that phenol is more acidic is false.
acidity: salicylic acid (y)>phenol (x)
Final answer: Compound x is more acidic than compound y.
Q60Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
CORRECT order of stability for the following is CH2=CH−,CH3−CH2−,CH≡C−
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4CH≡C−>CH2=CH−>CH3−CH2−
Approach:
Carbanion stability tracks the s-character of the orbital holding the lone pair: greater s-character keeps the negative charge closer to the nucleus and lowers its energy. Assigning hybridisation to each carbanion carbon orders the stabilities.
Step 1:Assign the hybridisation of the carbon bearing the negative charge: CH3−CH2− is sp3, CH2=CH− is sp2, and CH≡C− is sp.
CH3CH2−:sp3,CH2=CH−:sp2,CH≡C−:sp
Step 2:Order the s-character, since a lone pair in an orbital of higher s-character is held closer to the nucleus and is more stable.
sp3(25%)<sp2(33%)<sp(50%)
Step 3:Greater s-character gives greater stability, so the stability order follows the s-character order.
CH≡C−>CH2=CH−>CH3−CH2−
Final answer: CH≡C−>CH2=CH−>CH3−CH2−
Q61Single correctAtomic Structure
The wave numbers of three spectral lines of H atom are considered. Identify the set of spectral belonging to Balmer series. (R = Rydberg constant)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4365R,163R,10021R
Approach:
The Balmer series of hydrogen arises from electronic transitions terminating at n = 2. The Rydberg formula with the final level fixed at 2 and the initial level taken as 3, 4 and 5 generates the wave numbers, which are matched to the option set.
Step 1:Transition from n = 3 to n = 2.
νˉ=R(41−91)=R⋅369−4=365R
Step 2:Transition from n = 4 to n = 2.
νˉ=R(41−161)=R⋅164−1=163R
Step 3:Transition from n = 5 to n = 2.
νˉ=R(41−251)=R⋅10025−4=10021R
Final answer: 365R,163R,10021R
Q62Single correctd- and f-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The number of pairs, from the following, in which both the ions are coloured in aqueous solutions is 3. [Sc3+,Ti3+],[Mn2+,Cr2+],[Cu2+,Zn2+] and [Ni2+,Ti4+] Statement II: Th4+ is the strongest reducing agent among Th4+,Ce4+,Gd3+ and Eu2+. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Approach:
Colour of an aqueous transition-metal ion arises from d-d transitions, which require a partially filled d subshell (d1 to d9); d0 and d10 ions are colourless. Each pair is examined to count those in which both ions are coloured. For the f-block ions, reducing strength is judged from the tendency of the ion to be oxidised to a more stable configuration.
Step 1:Evaluate each pair. [Sc3+, Ti3+]: Sc3+ is d0 (colourless), Ti3+ is d1 (coloured) - not both coloured. [Mn2+, Cr2+]: Mn2+ is d5 and Cr2+ is d4, both coloured. [Cu2+, Zn2+]: Cu2+ is d9 (coloured), Zn2+ is d10 (colourless) - not both coloured. [Ni2+, Ti4+]: Ni2+ is d8 (coloured), Ti4+ is d0 (colourless) - not both coloured.
Sc3+,Ti4+(d0),Zn2+(d10)colourless
Step 2:The number of pairs with both ions coloured is one, not three, so Statement I is false.
coloured pairs=1=3
Step 3:Among Th4+, Ce4+, Gd3+ and Eu2+, the strongest reducing agent is the one most readily oxidised. Eu2+ is readily oxidised to the stable half-filled Eu3+ (4f7) and is the strongest reducing agent; Th4+ has the inert [Rn] core and is neither a strong reductant nor oxidant. Hence Statement II, which names Th4+, is false.
Eu2+→Eu3+(4f7)strongest reductant, not Th4+
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q63Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statements: Statement I: The number of species among BF4−,SiF4,XeF4 and SF4, that have unequal E-F bond lengths is two. Here, E is the central atom. Statement II: Among O2−,O22−,F2 and O2+,O2− has the highest bond order In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Approach:
The geometry of each fluoride is obtained from VSEPR/hybridisation to decide whether all E-F bonds are equivalent. Bond orders of the dioxygen species are computed from molecular orbital theory to find the largest, and each statement is judged.
Step 1:BF4- (sp3) and SiF4 (sp3) are regular tetrahedra, so all E-F bonds are equal. XeF4 (sp3d2, two lone pairs) is square planar with four equivalent Xe-F bonds, all equal. SF4 (sp3d, one lone pair) is a see-saw shape with two axial bonds longer than two equatorial bonds, so its bonds are unequal.
Step 2:The number of species with unequal E-F bond lengths is one, not two, so Statement I is false.
unequal-bond species=1=2
Step 3:From MO theory the bond orders are O2+ = 2.5 (15 electrons), O2- = 1.5 (17 electrons), O22- = 1.0 (18 electrons), and F2 = 1.0 (18 electrons). The highest bond order is that of O2+, not O2-, so Statement II is false.
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q64Single correctSolutions
At T(K), 2 moles of liquid A and 3 moles of liquid B are mixed. The vapour pressure of ideal solution formed is 320 mm Hg. At this stage, one mole of A and one mole of B added to the solution. The vapour pressure is now measured as 328.6 mm Hg. The vapour pressre (in mm Hg) of A and B are respectively:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3500,200
Approach:
Given two ideal-solution vapour pressures at different compositions, the pure-component vapour pressures are required. Raoult's law writes the total pressure as the mole-fraction-weighted sum of pure vapour pressures. Applying it to the 2:3 mixture and to the 3:4 mixture obtained after adding one mole of each component gives two linear equations in PA∘ and PB∘, solved simultaneously.
Step 1:For the initial mixture of 2 mol A and 3 mol B (total 5), the mole fractions are xA=2/5 and xB=3/5; applying Raoult's law to the measured 320 mm Hg gives the first equation.
320=52PA∘+53PB∘
Step 2:Adding one mole of A and one mole of B changes the composition to 3 mol A and 4 mol B (total 7), with xA=3/7 and xB=4/7; the measured 328.6 mm Hg gives the second equation.
328.6=73PA∘+74PB∘
Step 3:Eliminate PA∘ by computing 3×(eq.1)−2×(eq.2).
3(2PA∘+3PB∘)−2(3PA∘+4PB∘)=3(1600)−2(2300.2)
Step 4:Substitute PB∘=200 into the first equation to obtain PA∘.
2PA∘=1600−3(200)=1000
Final answer: PA∘=500,PB∘=200 mm Hg
Q65Single correctPurification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
Method used for separation of mixture of products (B and C) obtained in the following reaction is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Fractional distillation
Approach:
Benzene is brominated to bromobenzene (A), whose halogen is ortho/para directing; nitration then gives a mixture of two positional isomers, B and C. The required separation method follows from the physical nature of the two isomeric products.
Step 1:Electrophilic bromination of benzene with Br2 and FeBr3 yields bromobenzene; the C-Br bond makes the halogen an ortho/para director.
C6H6+Br2FeBr3C6H5Br(A)
Step 2:Nitration of bromobenzene with conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 substitutes a nitro group at the ortho and para positions, producing the two products B and C.
Step 3:The two products are mutually miscible liquids that differ moderately in boiling point; such a mixture of miscible liquids with close boiling points is separated by repeated vaporisation-condensation, i.e. fractional distillation. Simple distillation fails for close boiling points, steam distillation suits immiscible volatile solids, and sublimation suits compounds that pass directly to vapour.
miscible isomers, close b.p.⇒fractional distillation
Final answer: Fractional distillation
Q66Single correctp-Block Elements
Regarding the hydrides of group 15 elements EH3 (E = N, P, As, Sb), select the correct statement from the following: A) The stability of hydrides decreases down the group B) The basicity of hydrides decreases down the group C) The reducing character increases down the group D) The boiling point increase down the group Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A,B&Conly
Approach:
The four statements about the group 15 hydrides EH3 are each tested against established periodic trends in thermal stability, basicity, reducing character and boiling point as the central atom increases in size down the group.
Step 1:Statement A: as the central atom grows down the group the E-H bond weakens, so thermal stability falls in the order shown. A is correct.
NH3>PH3>AsH3>SbH3
Step 2:Statement B: the lone pair becomes more diffuse and less available for donation as size increases, so basicity decreases down the group (NH3>PH3>AsH3>SbH3). B is correct.
basicity↓ down the group
Step 3:Statement C: weaker E-H bonds make the hydrides more readily oxidised, so the reducing character increases down the group. C is correct.
reducing character↑ down the group
Step 4:Statement D: boiling point does not increase monotonically because NH3 is anomalously high owing to hydrogen bonding, giving the irregular order PH3<AsH3<NH3<SbH3<BiH3. D is incorrect.
Given below are the four isomeric compounds (P, Q, R, S)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A,CandEonly
Approach:
The four C9H10O isomers are P (1-phenylprop-2-en-1-ol, Ph-CH(OH)-CH=CH2, allylic-benzylic alcohol with a vinyl group), Q (3-phenylpropanal, Ph-CH2-CH2-CHO, aldehyde), R (1-phenylpropan-2-one, Ph-CH2-CO-CH3, methyl ketone) and S (1-phenylpropan-1-one, Ph-CO-CH2-CH3, ethyl ketone). Each diagnostic test is applied to every structure to judge statements A-E.
Step 1:Statement A: Q (aldehyde), R (ketone) and S (ketone) each contain a carbonyl group and give an orange precipitate with 2,4-DNP; P is an alcohol and gives none. A is correct.
Q,R,S2,4-DNPprecipitate;P→no precipitate
Step 2:Statement B: Baeyer's reagent (cold dilute alkaline KMnO4) tests for an alkene C=C. P bears a vinyl group and decolourises it, but Q (Ph-CH2-CH2-CHO) has no carbon-carbon double bond, so the pair 'P and Q' is not jointly positive. B is incorrect.
P→positive (C=C);Q→no C=C
Step 3:Statement C: Q and R are aromatic compounds with high carbon-to-hydrogen ratio and burn with a sooty (luminous) flame; the statement is a true observation. C is correct.
Q,R→sooty flame
Step 4:Statement D: the iodoform test needs a CH3CO- or CH3CH(OH)- unit. R (Ph-CH2-CO-CH3) has CH3CO- and is positive, but S (Ph-CO-CH2-CH3) is an ethyl ketone lacking that unit and is negative, so the pair 'R and S' is not jointly positive. D is incorrect.
R→CH3CO-(positive);S→no CH3CO-(negative)
Step 5:Statement E: only an aldehyde reduces Tollens' reagent; Q is the sole aldehyde, so Q alone deposits silver. E is correct.
Each drawn scheme is judged for whether its major product is the genuine outcome. Option 2 is the Hofmann bromamide degradation, the standard conversion of a primary amide to a primary amine with one fewer carbon; its balanced stoichiometry is checked. The remaining schemes are tested for the validity of their drawn products.
Step 1:Option 2: propanamide is degraded by Br2 and alkali, losing the carbonyl carbon to give ethylamine (a primary amine with one fewer carbon) together with 2KBr, K2CO3 and water.
Step 2:Balance check of option 2: C 3=2+1, N 1=1, Br 2=2, K 4=2+2, O 5=3+2, H 11=7+4, all conserved, so the drawn equation is correct.
C,H,N,O,Br,K all balanced
Step 3:Option 1 (benzanilide nitration) places the nitro group incorrectly on the acyl ring rather than where the strongly activating -NH-CO- amide nitrogen directs; option 3 does not regenerate benzylamine through the carbylamine intermediate as drawn; option 4 (Gabriel synthesis) cannot give aniline because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with potassium phthalimide. These schemes are wrong.
options 1, 3, 4 drawn products incorrect
Final answer: Hofmann bromamide degradation: H3CCH2CONH2+Br2+4KOH(alc)ΔH3CCH2NH2+2KBr+K2CO3+2H2O
Q69Single correctHydrocarbons
Ph−CH=CH2(PhCOO)2HBrProduct Consider the above reaction A. The reaction proceeds through a more stable radical intermediate. B. The role of peroxide is to generate H⋅ (hydrogen radical). C. During this reaction, benzene is formed as a byproduct. D. 1-Bromo-2-phenylethane is formed as the minor product. E. The same reaction in absence of peroxide proceeds via carbocation intermediate. Identify the correct statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4A,C&Eonly
Approach:
Addition of HBr to styrene with benzoyl peroxide follows the anti-Markovnikov (peroxide/Kharasch) free-radical pathway, while without peroxide it follows the ionic Markovnikov pathway through a carbocation. Each statement is judged against the mechanism and the stability of the intermediates.
Step 1:Statement A: in the chain step a bromine radical adds to the terminal CH2, generating the resonance-stabilised benzylic radical PhC˙H-CH2Br rather than the less stable primary radical, so the reaction proceeds through the more stable radical. A is correct.
Br⋅+Ph-CH=CH2→PhC˙H-CH2Br
Step 2:Statement B: the peroxide initiates the chain by decomposing into radicals that abstract H from HBr to generate bromine radicals (Br⋅), which are the chain carriers; it does not generate hydrogen radicals. B is incorrect.
Ph⋅+HBr→PhH+Br⋅
Step 3:Statement C: benzoyl peroxide decomposes via PhCOO⋅ to phenyl radicals that abstract hydrogen from HBr, forming benzene (C6H6) as a by-product of initiation. C is correct.
Ph⋅+HBr→C6H6+Br⋅
Step 4:Statement D: the benzylic radical abstracts H from HBr to give Ph-CH2-CH2Br (1-bromo-2-phenylethane) as the major anti-Markovnikov product, so calling it the minor product is wrong. D is incorrect.
PhC˙H-CH2Br+HBr→Ph-CH2-CH2Br+Br⋅(major)
Step 5:Statement E: without peroxide, electrophilic addition of HBr proceeds by protonation to the more stable benzylic carbocation PhC+H-CH3 (Markovnikov), so the no-peroxide route is via a carbocation. E is correct.
Ph-CH=CH2+H+→PhC+H-CH3Br−Ph-CHBr-CH3
Final answer: A, C & E only
Q70Single correctPrinciples Related to Practical Chemistry
Given below are two statements: Statement I: Griss-Ilosvay test is used for the detection of nitrite ion, which involves the use of sulphanilic acid and α-naphthylamine reagent. Statement II: In the above test, sulphanilic acid is diazotized by the acidified nitrite ion, which on further coupling with α-naphthylamine forms an azo-dye. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Approach:
The Griess-Ilosvay test for nitrite ion is examined for both its overall identity (reagents and purpose) and the detailed sequence (which species is diazotised and which couples). The standard mechanism is that acidified nitrite diazotises sulphanilic acid and the resulting diazonium salt couples with α-naphthylamine to give a red azo dye; each statement is checked against this sequence.
Step 1:Statement I identifies the Griess-Ilosvay test as the detection of nitrite ion using sulphanilic acid and α-naphthylamine, which is the correct description of the test. Statement I is true.
detection of NO2−using sulphanilic acid and α-naphthylamine
Step 2:Statement II describes the sequence: the acidified nitrite (as HNO2) diazotises sulphanilic acid, and the diazonium salt couples with α-naphthylamine to form an azo dye. This is the established mechanism of the test, so Statement II is also true.
Step 3:Both statements are correct and Statement II gives the mechanistic explanation underlying Statement I.
I true, II true
Final answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Q71NumericalEquilibrium
Consider the dissociation equilibrium of the following weak acid: HA⇌H+(aq)+A−(aq) If the pKa of the acid is 4, then the pH of 10 mM HA solution is ______.(Nearest integer) Given: [The degree of dissociation can be neglected with respect to unity.]
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
For a weak monoprotic acid where the degree of dissociation is negligible compared with unity, the hydrogen-ion concentration is the geometric mean of Ka and the initial concentration C. The pH follows from the half-relation in pKa and logC. Given pKa=4 and C=10 mM.
Step 1:Convert the data: pKa=4 gives Ka=10−4, and 10 mM gives C=10×10−3=10−2 M.
Ka=10−4,C=10−2M
Step 2:Compute the hydrogen-ion concentration with dissociation neglected against unity.
[H+]=10−4×10−2=10−6=10−3M
Step 3:Take the negative logarithm to obtain the pH.
pH=−log(10−3)=3
Final answer: 3
Q72NumericalRedox Reactions and Electrochemistry
Consider the following redox reaction taking place in acidic medium: BH4−(aq)+ClO3−(aq)→H2BO3−(aq)+Cl−(aq) If the Nernst equation for the above balanced reaction is Ecell=Ecell∘−nFRTlnQ, then the value of n is ____. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 24
Approach:
The n in the Nernst equation equals the total electrons transferred in the balanced overall reaction. Oxidation-state changes give the n-factor of the oxidant (ClO3−) and of the reductant (BH4−); balancing electrons gives the smallest whole-number coefficients, and the total electron transfer is the common multiple.
Step 1:Oxidation states: in BH4− the hydride H is −1 and B is +3; in H2BO3− B remains +3 while the four hydrogens go from −1 to +1. Each BH4− therefore loses 4×2=8 electrons (n-factor 8).
H:−1→+1(×4)⇒8e−lost per BH4−
Step 2:In ClO3− chlorine is +5 and in Cl− it is −1, so each ClO3− gains 6 electrons (n-factor 6).
Cl:+5→−1⇒6e−gained per ClO3−
Step 3:Equate electrons lost and gained using the least common multiple of 8 and 6, which is 24, giving 3 BH4− (3×8=24) and 4 ClO3− (4×6=24). The total electron transfer is 24.
3BH4−+4ClO3−→3H2BO3−+4Cl−+3H2O
Final answer: 24
Q73NumericalCoordination Compounds
X is the number of geometrical isomers exhibited by [Pt(NH3)(H2O)BrCl]. Y is the number of optically inactive isomer(s) exhibited by [CrCl2(ox)2]3−. Z is the number of geometrical isomers exhibited by [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]. The value of X+Y+Z is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
Each coordination entity is analysed for its required isomer count from its geometry and ligand set: a square-planar [Mabcd] Pt complex (X, geometrical isomers), an octahedral [M(AA)2b2] chromium complex (Y, optically inactive isomers) and an octahedral [Ma3b3] cobalt complex (Z, geometrical isomers). The three counts are then summed.
Step 1:[Pt(NH3)(H2O)BrCl] is square planar of type Mabcd (four different monodentate ligands); such a complex shows three geometrical isomers, defined by which ligand sits trans to each chosen one. Hence X = 3.
X=3
Step 2:[CrCl2(ox)2]3− is octahedral of type M(AA)2b2 with two bidentate oxalate ligands and two chlorides; it exists as cis and trans forms. The cis form is chiral (optically active, d/l pair) while the trans form has a plane of symmetry and is optically inactive. The number of optically inactive isomers is therefore one (the trans). Hence Y = 1.
Y=1(trans, achiral)
Step 3:[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] is octahedral of type Ma3b3; the three identical ligands can occupy one face (facial, fac) or a meridian (meridional, mer), giving two geometrical isomers. Hence Z = 2.
Z=2(fac and mer)
Step 4:Add the three counts.
X+Y+Z=3+1+2
Final answer: 6
Q74NumericalPurification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
0.53 g of an organic compound (x) when heated with excess of nitric acid (concentrated) and then with silver nitrate gave 0.75 g of silver bromide precipitate. 1.0 g of (x) gave 1.32 g of CO2 gas on combustion. The percentage of hydrogen in the compound (x) is ____%. [Nearest Integer] [Given: Molar mass in gmol−1 H : 1, C : 12, Br : 80, Ag : 108, O : 16; Compound (x) CxHyBrz]
SolutionAnswer: 4
Approach:
The compound contains only C, H and Br. The carbon percentage is found from the CO2 produced per gram of sample, the bromine percentage from the AgBr precipitate per gram of sample (Carius method), and the hydrogen percentage is obtained by difference.
Step 1:From 1.0 g of compound giving 1.32 g CO2, the mass of carbon is 4412×1.32=0.36 g, so the carbon percentage is 36%.
%C=4412×1.01.32×100=36%
Step 2:Molar mass of AgBr is 108+80=188. From 0.53 g of compound giving 0.75 g AgBr, the mass of bromine is 18880×0.75=0.3191 g.
mBr=18880×0.75=0.3191g
Step 3:The bromine percentage uses the 0.53 g sample.
%Br=0.530.3191×100=60.2%
Step 4:Hydrogen is the remainder after subtracting carbon and bromine.
%H=100−(36+60.2)=3.8
Final answer: 4
Q75NumericalRedox Reactions and Electrochemistry
500 mL of 1.2 M KI solution is mixed with 500 mL of 0.2 M KMnO4 solution in basic medium. The liberated iodine was titrated with standard 0.1 M Na2S2O3 solution in presence of starch indicator till the blue color disappeared. The volume (in L) of Na2S2O3 consumed is ______. (Nearest integer)
SolutionAnswer: 3
Approach:
In basic medium permanganate is reduced from +7 to +4 (n-factor 3) while oxidising iodide to iodine. The liberated iodine is then reduced by thiosulphate (n-factor 1). By electron conservation through the iodine intermediate, the equivalents of permanganate equal the equivalents of thiosulphate, which gives the required thiosulphate volume.
Step 1:Moles of KMnO4=0.2×0.5=0.1 mol; in basic medium MnO4− goes to MnO2 (+7→+4), n-factor 3, so its equivalents are 0.1×3=0.3. Iodide (0.6 mol available) is in excess, so permanganate is fully consumed.
eq of KMnO4=0.2×1000500×3=0.3
Step 2:The electrons captured from iodide reappear when the liberated iodine is titrated by thiosulphate (n-factor 1), so equivalents of thiosulphate equal 0.3; set 0.1×V×1=0.3.
0.1×V×1=0.3
Step 3:Solve for the volume in litres.
V=0.10.3
Final answer: 3
Mathematics24 questions
Q1Single correctMatrices and Determinants
Let A,B and C be three 2×2 matrices with real entries such that B=(I+A)−1 and A+C=I. If BC=(1−1−52) and CB(x1x2)=(12−6), then x1+x2 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 40
Approach:
Given B=(I+A)−1, A+C=I, and the product BC, the objective is x1+x2 where CB(x1x2)=(12−6). The relations are used to express BC and CB as the same matrix, after which the linear system is solved.
Step 1:The data fix the matrices A,B,C with B=(I+A)−1, C=I−A, BC=(1−1−52), and the target is the sum of components of the solution vector of CBx=(12−6). Expand B(I+A)=I.
B+BA=I
Step 2:Substitute C=I−A into BC and apply BA=I−B.
BC=B(I−A)=B−BA=B−(I−B)
Step 3:Expand (I+A)B=I to obtain the companion relation for AB.
B+AB=I
Step 4:Substitute C=I−A into CB and apply AB=I−B, giving the same matrix as BC.
CB=(I−A)B=B−AB=B−(I−B)=2B−I=BC
Step 5:Form the linear system from CBx=(12−6) and eliminate by addition.
x1−5x2=12,−x1+2x2=−6
Step 6:Add the two components.
x1+x2=2+(−2)
Final answer: 0
Q2Single correctStatistics and Probability
The mean and variance of 10 observations are 9 and 34.2, respectively. If 8 of these observations are 2,3,5,10,11,13,15,21, then the mean deviation about the median of all the10 observations is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 45
Approach:
Ten observations have mean 9 and variance 34.2 with eight values listed. The two missing values are recovered from the sum and sum-of-squares conditions, all ten values are ordered, and the mean deviation about the median is computed.
Step 1:The known eight values 2,3,5,10,11,13,15,21 sum to 80. With mean 9 over ten observations the total is 90, so the two missing values a,b satisfy the sum condition.
80+a+b=90
Step 2:Variance gives ∑xi2=10(34.2+92)=10(115.2)=1152. The known eight squares sum to 4+9+25+100+121+169+225+441=1094.
a2+b2=1152−1094
Step 3:Use the identity (a+b)2=a2+b2+2ab to find ab, then solve the pair.
ab=2(a+b)2−(a2+b2)=2100−58=21
Step 4:Order all ten values and take the median as the mean of the fifth and sixth terms.
2,3,3,5,7,10,11,13,15,21
Step 5:Sum the absolute deviations from the median and divide by ten.
Let y=x be the equation of a chord of the circle C1(in the closed half - plane x≥0) of diameter 10 passing through the origin. Let C2 be another circle described on the given chord as its diameter. If the equation of the chord of the circle C2, which passes through the point (2,3)and is farthest from the center of C2, is x+ay+b=0, then a−b is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1−2
Approach:
The chord y=x through the origin meets circle C1:(x−5)2+y2=25 (diameter 10) at two points that form the diameter of C2. Its centre is found, then the chord through (2,3) farthest from that centre, being perpendicular to the line joining the centre and the point, is determined and matched to x+ay+b=0.
Step 1:The circle C1 of diameter 10 in the half-plane x≥0 through the origin is (x−5)2+y2=25. Intersect with y=x.
(x−5)2+x2=25⇒2x2−10x=0
Step 2:Circle C2 has this chord as diameter, so its centre is the midpoint of (0,0) and (5,5).
P=(20+5,20+5)
Step 3:A chord through a fixed point Q is farthest from the centre when perpendicular to PQ. Compute the slope of PQ with Q(2,3).
mPQ=2−253−25=−2121=−1
Step 4:Write the chord of slope 1 through (2,3) and match with x+ay+b=0.
y−3=1⋅(x−2)⇒x−y+1=0
Final answer: −2
Q4Single correctVector Algebra
For three unit vectors a,b,c satisfying ∣a−b∣2+∣b−c∣2+∣c−a∣2=9 and ∣2a+kb+kc∣=3, the positive value of k is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 25
Approach:
For unit vectors a,b,c the first condition fixes the sum of pairwise dot products; this forces a+b+c=0, which reduces the second magnitude condition to a one-vector equation solved for the positive k.
Step 1:Expand the first condition using ∣a∣=∣b∣=∣c∣=1.
∣a−b∣2+∣b−c∣2+∣c−a∣2=6−2(a⋅b+b⋅c+c⋅a)=9
Step 2:Substitute this into the norm of the vector sum.
∣a+b+c∣2=3+2(−23)=0
Step 3:Rewrite the second condition with b+c=−a.
∣2a+kb+kc∣=∣2a+k(b+c)∣=∣2a−ka∣=∣(2−k)a∣
Step 4:Solve the absolute-value equation.
2−k=±3
Step 5:Select the positive root.
k>0
Final answer: 5
Q5Single correctSequence and Series
The value of ∑k=1∞(−1)k+1(k!k(k+1)) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41/e
Approach:
The summand k!k(k+1) is split via k(k+1)=k(k−1)+2k into two factorial series; each is re-indexed to the expansion of e−1 and the contributions combined.
Step 1:Split the numerator k(k+1)=k(k−1)+2k and apply factorial reduction.
Step 2:Re-index the first series with m=k−2, so (−1)k+1=(−1)m+1.
∑m=0∞(−1)m+1m!1=−∑m=0∞m!(−1)m=−e−1
Step 3:Re-index the second series with m=k−1, so (−1)k+1=(−1)m.
2∑m=0∞(−1)mm!1=2e−1
Step 4:Add the two contributions.
−e−1+2e−1
Final answer: 1/e
Q6Single correctPermutations and Combinations
Let S={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}. Let x be the number of 9-digit numbers formed using the digits of the set S such that only one digit is repeated and it is repeated exactly twice. Let y be the number of 9-digit numbers formed using the digits of the set S such that only two digits are repeated and each of these is repeated exactly twice. Then:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 221x=4y
Approach:
From S={1,…,9}, x counts nine-digit numbers with exactly one digit repeated twice and y counts those with exactly two digits each repeated twice. Both counts use selection of the repeated and single digits times the multinomial arrangement; their ratio gives the relation.
Step 1:For x: a nine-digit number with one digit repeated twice uses eight distinct digits from S. Choose the eight distinct digits, choose which one is doubled, then arrange nine positions with one identical pair.
x=(89)(18)2!9!=9⋅8⋅29!
Step 2:For y: two digits each repeated twice use seven distinct digits. Choose the seven distinct digits, choose the two that are doubled, then arrange with two identical pairs.
y=(79)(27)2!2!9!=36⋅21⋅49!
Step 3:Form the ratio of the counts.
yx=189⋅9!36⋅9!=18936=214
Step 4:Cross-multiply to obtain the relation.
21x=4y
Final answer: 21x=4y
Q7Single correctStatistics and Probability
A bag contains 10 balls out of which k are red and (10−k) are black, where 0≤k≤10. If three balls are drawn at random without replacement and all of them are found to be black, then the probability that the bag contains 1 red and 9 black balls is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 15514
Approach:
Each composition k=0,…,10 is treated as equally likely a priori. The likelihood of drawing three black balls is hypergeometric, and Bayes' theorem gives the posterior probability of the composition with one red and nine black (k=1).
Step 1:With eleven equally likely compositions k=0,1,…,10, the prior is 111 and the likelihood of three black balls when (10−k) are black is (310−k)/(310). The common factors 111 and 1/(310) cancel, leaving counts proportional to (310−k).
P(3B∣k)∝(310−k)
Step 2:The composition one red, nine black corresponds to k=1 with weight (39).
(39)=84
Step 3:Sum the weights over all k, equivalently over black count j=10−k from 3 to 10, using the hockey-stick identity.
∑j=310(3j)=(411)=330
Step 4:Apply Bayes' theorem and simplify.
P=33084=5514
Final answer: 5514
Q8Single correctCo-ordinate Geometry
Let ABC be an equilateral triangle with orthocenter at the origin and the side BC on the line x+22y=4. If the co-ordinates of the vertex A are (α,β), then the greatest integer less than or equal to ∣α+2β∣ is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 14
Approach:
For an equilateral triangle the orthocentre, centroid and circumcentre coincide at the origin. The centroid divides the median from A to the midpoint M of BC in ratio 2:1, with A and M on opposite sides of the origin along the perpendicular to BC. The vertex A=(α,β) is located and ⌊∣α+2β∣⌋ evaluated.
Step 1:The orthocentre O at the origin coincides with the centroid. The foot M of the perpendicular from O to BC:x+22y−4=0 is at distance OM.
OM=1+8∣0+0−4∣=34
Step 2:The unit normal to BC is (31,322). Since the line value at O is −4<0, M lies in the +normal direction, M=34(31,322)=(94,982).
A=3G−2M=−2M
Step 3:Confirm A lies on the perpendicular from O to BC (slope 22): β=22α gives −9162=22(−98), which holds. Compute α+2β.
α+2β=−98+2(−9162)=−98−932
Step 4:Take the absolute value and apply the greatest-integer function.
∣α+2β∣=940≈4.44
Final answer: 4
Q9Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
If α,β, where α<β, are the roots of the equation λx2−(λ+3)x+3=0 such that α1−β1=31, then the sum of all possible values of λ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 46
Approach:
The quadratic λx2−(λ+3)x+3=0 factors with roots 1 and 3/λ. Imposing α1−β1=31 for both orderings consistent with α<β yields the admissible values of λ, whose sum is required.
Step 1:Factor the quadratic to read off the roots.
(λx−3)(x−1)=0
Step 2:For the ordering α=1<β=λ3 (requires λ3>1), impose the condition.
11−3/λ1=1−3λ=31
Step 3:For the ordering α=λ3<β=1 (requires λ3<1), impose the condition.
3/λ1−11=3λ−1=31
Step 4:Add the admissible values.
2+4
Final answer: 6
Q10Single correctIntegral Calculus
If ∫(sin5xcos2x1−5cos2x)dx=f(x)+C, where C is the constant of integration, then f(6π)−f(4π) is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 334(8−6)
Approach:
The integrand sin5xcos2x1−5cos2x is the exact derivative of sin5xtanx, so f(x)=sin5xtanx; evaluation at 6π and 4π gives the required difference.
Step 1:Differentiating sin5xtanx reproduces the integrand, so the antiderivative is identified.
f(x)=sin5xtanx
Step 2:Evaluate f at 6π.
f(6π)=(1/2)51/3=332
Step 3:Evaluate f at 4π.
f(4π)=(1/2)51=(2)5⋅41=42
Step 4:Form the difference and factor by 34.
332−42=34(8−3⋅2)=34(8−6)
Final answer: 34(8−6)
Q11Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Let S={x3+ax2+bx+c:a,b,c∈N and a,b,c≤20} be a set of polynomials. Then the number of polynomials in S, which are divisible by x2+2, is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 410
Approach:
Divisibility of the monic cubic x3+ax2+bx+c by x2+2 forces it to equal (x2+2)(x+q). Coefficient comparison fixes b and ties c to a; the natural-number triples within the bound are then counted.
Step 1:Since the cubic is monic, the quotient on division by x2+2 is x+q. Expand the product.
(x2+2)(x+q)=x3+qx2+2x+2q
Step 2:Match coefficients with x3+ax2+bx+c.
a=q,b=2,c=2q
Step 3:Apply a,b,c∈N with a,b,c≤20. The value b=2 is admissible, and c=2a≤20 bounds a.
1≤a≤10
Step 4:Each admissible a gives one valid triple (a,2,2a); count them.
#{a:1≤a≤10}=10
Final answer: 10
Q12Single correctDifferential Equations
Let y=y(x) be the solution of the differential equation xdxdy−sin2y=x3(2−x3)cos2y,x=0. If y(2)=0, then tan(y(1))is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 247
Approach:
Dividing by cos2y and substituting t=tany converts the equation into a first-order linear ODE in t, solved by an integrating factor; the condition y(2)=0 fixes the constant and tan(y(1)) is read off.
Step 1:Divide the equation by xcos2y and use cos2ysin2y=2tany to obtain a relation in t=tany.
sec2ydxdy−x2tany=x2(2−x3)
Step 2:Compute the integrating factor.
I.F=e∫−x2dx=e−2lnx=x21
Step 3:Multiply through and integrate the exact derivative.
dxd(x2t)=2−x3⇒x2t=2x−4x4+c
Step 4:Apply y(2)=0, so tany=0 at x=2.
0=2(8)−464+4c=16−16+4c
Step 5:Evaluate at x=1.
tany(1)=2(1)−41
Final answer: 47
Q13Single correctIntegral Calculus
The area of the region R={(x,y):xy≤8,1≤y≤x2,x≥0} is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 332(24loge(2)−7)
Approach:
Givens: the region bounded by y=x2, y=1, the hyperbola xy=8 and x≥0. Target: its area. Method: determine the upper boundary as min(x2,8/x) above the line y=1, split the x-integration at the crossover, and integrate.
Step 1:The lower boundary is y=1. The upper boundary is the smaller of y=x2 and y=8/x. Equating x2=8/x gives x3=8, so the curves cross at x=2.
x2=x8⇒x3=8⇒x=2
Step 2:Determine the x-range. The lower curve y=x2 meets y=1 at x=1, and the hyperbola y=8/x meets y=1 at x=8. For 1≤x≤2 the top is y=x2; for 2≤x≤8 the top is y=8/x.
x∈[1,2]:ytop=x2;x∈[2,8]:ytop=x8
Step 3:Integrate the first part from x=1 to x=2 with top y=x2 and bottom y=1.
∫12(x2−1)dx=[3x3−x]12=(38−2)−(31−1)
Step 4:Integrate the second part from x=2 to x=8 with top y=8/x and bottom y=1.
∫28(x8−1)dx=[8lnx−x]28=(8ln8−8)−(8ln2−2)
Step 5:Add the two contributions and factor.
A=34+16ln2−6=16ln2−314
Final answer: 32(24loge(2)−7)
Q14Single correctSets, Relations and Functions
If g(x)=3x2+2x−3, f(0)=−3 and 4g(f(x))=3x2−32x+72, then f(g(2)) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 327
Approach:
Givens: g(x)=3x2+2x−3, f(0)=−3, and 4g(f(x))=3x2−32x+72. Target: f(g(2)). Method: take f linear, match coefficients to fix it, then evaluate the composition.
Step 1:Since the right side 3x2−32x+72 is quadratic and g is quadratic, f is linear. Apply f(0)=−3.
f(x)=px+q,f(0)=q=−3
Step 2:Substitute f(x)=px−3 into 4g(f(x))=4[3(px−3)2+2(px−3)−3] and expand.
4[3(p2x2−6px+9)+2px−6−3]=12p2x2−64px+72
Step 3:Match the coefficient of x2 and the coefficient of x.
12p2=3⇒p=±21;−64p=−32⇒p=21
Step 4:Write f and evaluate g(2).
f(x)=2x−3,g(2)=3(4)+2(2)−3=13
Step 5:Compute f(g(2))=f(13).
f(13)=213−3=213−6
Final answer: 27
Q15Single correctSequence and Series
The common difference of the A.P.: a1,a2,……am is 13 more than the common difference of the A.P.: b1,b2,……bn. If b31=−277, b43=−385, and a78=327, then a1 is equal to:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 119
Approach:
Givens: da=db+13, b31=−277, b43=−385, a78=327. Target: a1. Method: extract db from two b-terms, get da, then back out a1.
Step 1:Use b43−b31=(43−31)db to find the common difference of the b-series.
12db=−385−(−277)=−108
Step 2:The common difference of the a-series is 13 more than db.
da=db+13=−9+13
Step 3:Express a1 from a78=a1+77da.
a1=327−77(4)=327−308
Final answer: 19
Q16Single correctLimit, Continuity and Differentiability
The Value of x→0lime2−e2cosxloge(sec(ex)⋅sec(e2x)……sec(e10x))
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 42(e2−1)(e20−1)
Approach:
Givens: the limit of e2−e2cosxloge∏k=110sec(ekx) as x→0. Target: the limit value. Method: expand numerator and denominator to leading order in x2 and take the ratio of coefficients.
Step 1:Convert the logarithm of the product into a sum and apply logesec(ekx)→21e2kx2.
∑k=110logesec(ekx)∼2x2∑k=110e2k
Step 2:Expand the denominator using cosx=1−2x2+O(x4).
e2−e2cosx=e2−e2−x2=e2(1−e−x2)
Step 3:Form the ratio of leading x2 terms.
e2x22x2e2e2−1e20−1=21⋅e2−1e20−1
Final answer: 2(e2−1)(e20−1)
Q17Single correctTrigonometry
If tanAtan(A−B)+sin2Asin2C=1, A,B,C∈(0,2π), then
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4tan A, tan C, tan B are in G.P
Approach:
Givens: tanAtan(A−B)+sin2Asin2C=1 with A,B,C∈(0,2π). Target: the progression relating tanA,tanB,tanC. Method: reduce the relation to a product condition on the tangents.
Step 1:Isolate the first term.
tanAtan(A−B)=1−sin2Asin2C=sin2Asin2A−sin2C
Step 2:Multiply both sides by sin2A and use sinAcosA on the left and the product form on the right.
tan(A−B)sinAcosA=sin(A+C)sin(A−C)
Step 3:Reducing the trigonometric identity yields a symmetric product relation among the tangents.
tan2C=tanAtanB
Step 4:Since tanC is the geometric mean of tanA and tanB, the ordering tanA,tanC,tanB is geometric.
tanAtanC=tanCtanB
Final answer: tan A, tan C, tan B are in G.P
Q18Single correctComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations
Let z be a complex number such that ∣z−6∣=5 and ∣z+2−6i∣=5. Then the value of z3+3z2−15z+141 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 350
Approach:
Givens: ∣z−6∣=5 and ∣z+2−6i∣=5. Target: z3+3z2−15z+141. Method: identify the two circles, locate their unique common point, and evaluate the polynomial there.
Step 1:Read off the two circles: centre A(6,0) radius 5, and centre B(−2,6) radius 5.
∣z−6∣=5,∣z−(−2+6i)∣=5
Step 2:Compute the distance between the centres.
AB=(6+2)2+(0−6)2=64+36=10
Step 3:Since AB equals the sum of radii, the circles touch externally at the midpoint of AB.
z=2(6,0)+(−2,6)=(2,3)
Step 4:Compute z2 and z3.
z2=(2+3i)2=−5+12i,z3=(2+3i)(−5+12i)=−46+9i
Step 5:Assemble the polynomial.
(−46+9i)+3(−5+12i)−15(2+3i)+141
Final answer: 50
Q19Single correctThree Dimensional Geometry
If the distances of the point (1,2,a) from the line 1x−1=2y=1z−1 along the lines L1:3x−1=4y−2=bz−a and L2:1x−1=4y−2=cz−a are equal, then a+b+c is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 27
Approach:
Givens: point P(1,2,a), the fixed line 1x−1=2y=1z−1, and lines L1,L2 through P whose distances from P to the fixed line measured along L1 and L2 are equal. Target: a+b+c. Method: find where L1 and L2 meet the fixed line, impose equal distances, and read off a,b,c.
Step 1:Intersect L1 with the fixed line. A point on L1 is (1+3s,2+4s,a+bs); matching x and y with (1+t,2t,1+t) gives t=3s and 2+4s=6s, so s=1,t=3. The meeting point on the fixed line is Q(4,6,4).
2+4s=6s⇒s=1,t=3
Step 2:Intersect L2 with the fixed line. A point on L2 is (1+s′,2+4s′,a+cs′); matching gives t=s′ and 2+4s′=2s′, so s′=−1,t=−1. The meeting point on the fixed line is R(0,−2,0).
2+4s′=2s′⇒s′=−1,t=−1
Step 3:Impose equal distances PQ=PR from P(1,2,a), taking the z-coordinates of Q and R on the fixed line as 4 and 0.
9+16+(4−a)2=1+16+a2
Step 4:Use a+b=4 and a−c=0 with a=3.
b=4−3=1,c=a=3
Step 5:Add the three values.
a+b+c=3+1+3
Final answer: 7
Q20Single correctIntegral Calculus
Let f be a polynomial function such that f(x2+1)=x4+5x2+2, for all x∈R. Then ∫03f(x)dx is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1233
Approach:
Givens: f(x2+1)=x4+5x2+2. Target: ∫03f(x)dx. Method: recover f via the substitution t=x2+1, then integrate the explicit polynomial.
Step 1:Express the right side in x2 and substitute x2=t−1.
x4+5x2+2=(x2)2+5x2+2=(t−1)2+5(t−1)+2
Step 2:Integrate f(x)=x2+3x−2 from 0 to 3.
∫03(x2+3x−2)dx=[3x3+23x2−2x]03
Step 3:Simplify.
3+227=26+27
Final answer: 233
Q22NumericalTrigonometry
If k=tan(4π+21cos−1(32))+tan(21sin−1(32)), then the number of solutions of the equation sin−1(kx−1)=sin−1x−cos−1x is
SolutionAnswer: 1
Approach:
Givens: k=tan(4π+21cos−132)+tan(21sin−132) and the equation sin−1(kx−1)=sin−1x−cos−1x. Target: the number of solutions. Method: simplify k via complementary angles, reduce to an algebraic equation, and count roots inside the valid domain.
Step 1:Set θ=21cos−132. Since sin−132=2π−cos−132, the second angle is 21sin−132=4π−θ, so k=tan(4π+θ)+tan(4π−θ).
k=cos2θ2=cos(cos−132)2
Step 2:Substitute k=3 and rewrite the right side using the identity.
sin−1(3x−1)=2sin−1x−2π
Step 3:Take sine of both sides; sin(2sin−1x−2π)=−cos(2sin−1x)=−(1−2x2).
3x−1=2x2−1
Step 4:The roots are x=0 and x=23; the root x=23 lies outside the domain [0,32] and is discarded.
x=0(admissible),x=23(rejected)
Step 5:Confirm x=0 in the original equation.
sin−1(−1)=sin−10−cos−10=0−2π=−2π
Final answer: 1
Q23NumericalSequence and Series
In a G.P., if the product of the first three terms is 27 and the set of all possible values for the sum of its first three terms is R−(a,b), then a2+b2 is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 90
Approach:
Givens: a G.P. whose first three terms have product 27 and whose set of possible first-three-term sums is R−(a,b). Target: a2+b2. Method: use symmetric terms to fix the middle term, express the sum through r+r1, and apply its range to locate the excluded interval.
Step 1:Take the terms as rα,α,αr. Their product is α3.
rα⋅α⋅αr=α3=27
Step 2:Write the sum of the three terms.
S=rα+α+αr=3(r+r1)+3
Step 3:Apply r+r1≤−2 or ≥2 for real r=0.
3(r+r1)∈(−∞,−6]∪[6,∞)
Step 4:Hence the values S omits form the open interval (−3,9), so a=−3 and b=9.
R−(a,b)=R−(−3,9)
Step 5:Compute a2+b2.
(−3)2+92=9+81
Final answer: 90
Q24NumericalIntegral Calculus
The value of r=1∑20(π(∫0rx∣sinπx∣dx)) is
SolutionAnswer: 210
Approach:
Givens: the sum ∑r=120π∫0rx∣sinπx∣dx. Target: its value. Method: evaluate Ir=∫0rx∣sinπx∣dx in closed form using the symmetry of ∣sinπx∣, reduce each summand, and sum the arithmetic series.
Step 1:For integer r, ∣sinπ(r−x)∣=∣sinπx∣, so the symmetry rule applies with p=r.
Ir=∫0rx∣sinπx∣dx=2r∫0r∣sinπx∣dx
Step 2:Form each summand πIr.
π⋅πr2=r2=r
Step 3:Sum from r=1 to 20.
∑r=120r=220×21
Final answer: 210
Q25NumericalCo-ordinate Geometry
For some θ∈(0,2π), let the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola x2−y2sec2θ=8 be e1 and l1 respectively, and let the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse x2sec2θ+y2=6 be e2 and l2 respectively. If e12=e22(sec2θ+1), then (e1e2l1l2)tan2θ is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 8
Approach:
Givens: hyperbola x2−y2sec2θ=8 with eccentricity e1 and latus rectum l1, ellipse x2sec2θ+y2=6 with eccentricity e2 and latus rectum l2, and the relation e12=e22(sec2θ+1). Target: (e1e2l1l2)tan2θ. Method: standardise both conics, apply the relation to fix θ, then substitute.
Step 1:Standardise the hyperbola as 8x2−8cos2θy2=1.
e12=1+cos2θ,l1=222⋅8cos2θ=42cos2θ
Step 2:Standardise the ellipse as 6cos2θx2+6y2=1 with the major axis along y since 6cos2θ<6.
How many questions are in the JEE Main 2026 January 28, Shift 1 paper?
The JEE Main 2026 January 28, Shift 1 paper has 74 questions — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (24). Every question is on this page with its correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
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