JEE Main 2026 January 21, Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions
All 75 questions from the JEE Main 2026 (January 21, Shift 1) shift — Physics (25), Chemistry (25) and Mathematics (25) — each with the correct answer (answer key) and a step-by-step solution. Read it free online, or attempt the full paper as a timed mock test.
A gas based geyser heated water flowing at the rate of 5.0 litres per minute from 27oC to 87oC. The rate of consumption of the gas is_____g/s. (Take heat of combustion of gas =5.0×104J/g, specific heat capacity of water =4200 J/kg. 0C )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 40.42
Approach:
Equate the heat absorbed by water per unit time to the heat liberated by the burning gas per unit time, then solve for the gas mass-consumption rate.
Step 1:List the data in SI units; water density gives mass rate from volume rate.
Step 2:Compute the rate of heat supplied to the water.
Q˙=605×4200×60=21000J/s
Step 3:All this heat comes from the combusting gas, so equate and solve for the gas rate.
m˙g=HcQ˙=5×10421000
Step 4:Evaluate the gas consumption rate.
m˙g=0.42g/s
Final answer: 0.42 g/s
Q27Single correctElectrostatics
The point of charge of 10−8C is placed at origin. The work done is moving a point at 2μC from point A(4,4,2) m to B(2,2,1) m is ______ J. ( 4π∈o1=9×109 in SI unit)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 230×10−6
Approach:
Work done by the external agent equals the change in electrostatic potential energy of the two-charge system; compute the radial distances of A and B from the origin and take the difference.
Step 1:Identify the charges and constants.
q1=10−8C,q2=2×10−6C,k=9×109
Step 2:Find each point's distance from the origin charge.
rA=42+42+22=6m,rB=22+22+12=3m
Step 3:Substitute into the work formula.
W=9×109×10−8×2×10−6(31−61)
Step 4:Evaluate the bracket and the product.
W=18×10−5×61=3×10−5=30×10−6J
Final answer: 30×10−6 J
Q28Single correctDual Nature of Radiation and Matter
A light wave described by E=60[sin(3×1015)t+sin(12×1015)t] (in SI units) fall on a metal surface of work function 2.8 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron is (approximately)____eV. ( h=6.6×10−34J.s. and e=1.6×10−19C )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 45.1
Approach:
The incident light contains two angular frequencies; the maximum photoelectron energy is governed by the higher frequency. Convert that photon energy to eV and apply Einstein's photoelectric equation.
Step 1:Select the higher angular frequency in the superposition.
ωmax=12×1015rad/s
Step 2:Compute the corresponding photon energy in joules.
E=2π6.6×10−34×12×1015=1.26×10−18J
Step 3:Convert to electron-volts.
E=1.6×10−191.26×10−18=7.88eV
Step 4:Apply the photoelectric equation with ϕ=2.8 eV.
KEmax=7.88−2.8=5.08eV
Final answer: 5.1 eV
Q29Single correctRotational Motion
A uniform rod of mass m and length l suspend by means of two identical inextensible light strings as shown in figure. Tension in one string immediately after the other string is cut is ______. (g – acceleration due to gravity)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4mg/4
Approach:
Immediately after one string is cut, apply Newton's second law for translation of the centre of mass, the torque equation about the COM, and the constraint that the still-attached end has zero vertical acceleration.
Step 1:Identify the forces just after the cut: weight mg at COM downward and tension T upward at the remaining end.
Fdown=mg,Fup=T
Step 2:Translational equation for the centre of mass.
mg−T=macm
Step 3:Torque about the COM gives the angular acceleration.
T⋅2l=12ml2α⇒T=6mlα
Step 4:The attached end stays on the string, so its vertical acceleration is zero, linking acm and α.
acm=2lα
Step 5:Combine (1), (2), (3) to find the angular acceleration.
mg−6mlα=m⋅2lα⇒g=32lα⇒α=2l3g
Step 6:Back-substitute into Equation (2) for the tension.
T=6ml⋅2l3g=4mg
Final answer: mg/4
Q30Single correctLaws of Motion
A 4Kg mass moves under the influence of a force F=(4t3i−3tj)N where t is time in sec. If mass starts from origin a+t=0, the velocity and position after t=2s will be
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2v=4i^−23j^;r=58i^−j^
Approach:
Divide the force by the mass to obtain the acceleration components, integrate each component from t=0 (zero initial velocity, origin) to get velocity, then integrate velocity to get position, evaluating at t=2 s.
Step 1:Compute acceleration components from F=(4t3i^−3tj^) N with m=4 kg.
ax=44t3=t3,ay=4−3t
Step 2:Integrate accelerations to velocity at t=2.
vx=∫02t3dt=424=4,vy=∫02−43tdt=−83⋅4=−23
Step 3:Integrate vx(t)=t4/4 for the x-position.
x=∫024t4dt=41⋅525=41⋅532=58
Step 4:Integrate vy(t)=−3t2/8 for the y-position.
y=∫02−83t2dt=−83⋅323=−1
Step 5:Assemble velocity and position vectors.
v=4i^−23j^,r=58i^−j^
Final answer: v=4i^−23j^;r=58i^−j^
Q31Single correctSemiconductor Electronics
The given circuit works as:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3NAND gate
Approach:
Trace the Boolean expression through the gate network from inputs A and B to the output and identify the equivalent single gate.
Step 1:Take the two inputs A and B feeding the gate combination.
inputs=A,B
Step 2:Reduce the cascaded gate network using Boolean algebra to a single expression.
Y=A⋅B
Step 3:Recognise the standard gate corresponding to the complemented product.
A⋅B≡NAND
Final answer: NAND gate
Q32Single correctElectromagnetic Induction
A 1 m long metal rod AB completes the circuit as shown in figure. The area of circuit is perpendicular to the magnetic field of 0.10 T. If the resistance of the total circuit is 2 Ω then the force needed to move the rod towards right with constant speed (v) of 1.5m/s is ______N.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 27.5×10−3
Approach:
At constant speed the applied force balances the magnetic retarding force on the induced current; the motional EMF drives a current giving a force B2l2v/R.
Step 1:List the given quantities.
B=0.10T,l=1m,R=2Ω,v=1.5m/s
Step 2:For constant speed the net force is zero, so the applied force equals the magnetic retarding force.
F=RB2l2v
Step 3:Substitute the numerical values.
F=2(0.1)2×12×1.5
Step 4:Evaluate.
F=20.015=7.5×10−3N
Final answer: 7.5×10−3 N
Q33Single correctElectromagnetic Induction
A conducting circular loop of area 1.0m2 is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies as B=sin(100t) Tesla. If the resistance of the loop is 100Ω. Then the average thermal energy dissipated in the loop in one period is_____J.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2π
Approach:
Use Faraday's law to get the induced EMF from the time-varying field, write the instantaneous dissipated power ε2/R, and integrate over one full period to get the heat.
Step 1:List the loop data; the period of sin(100t) is 2π/100.
A=1m2,B=sin(100t),R=100Ω,T=1002πs
Step 2:Differentiate the flux to get the induced EMF.
ε=−AdtdB=−1⋅100cos(100t)=−100cos(100t)V
Step 3:Form the heat integral over one period.
H=∫0T100(100cos100t)2dt=∫0T100cos2(100t)dt
Step 4:The average of cos2 over a full period is 1/2.
H=100×21×T=50×1002π=π
Final answer: π J
Q34Single correctMoving Charges and Magnetism
A current carrying solenoid is placed vertically and a particle of mass m which charge Q is released from rest. The particle move along the axis of solenoid. If g is acceleration due to gravity, then the acceleration (a) of the charged particle will satisfy
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1a=g
Approach:
On the axis of a solenoid the magnetic field points along the axis; the released particle moves along that same axis, so velocity and field are parallel and the magnetic force vanishes, leaving only gravity.
Step 1:Set the geometry: vertical solenoid axis, particle released from rest moving along the axis.
v∥axis,B∥axis
Step 2:Evaluate the magnetic force when velocity is parallel to the axial field.
v∥B⇒v×B=0⇒Fmag=0
Step 3:Apply Newton's second law with only gravity acting.
Fnet=mg⇒a=g
Final answer: a=g
Q35Single correctWave Optics
In a double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 0.1cm and the screen is placed at 50cm from the slit plan. When one slit is covered with a transparent sheet having thickness t and refractive index n(=1.5), the central fringe shifts by 0.2cm. The value of t is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 38×10−4
Approach:
A thin transparent sheet over one slit shifts the central fringe by Δx=dDt(μ−1); solve this for the thickness t.
Step 1:List the given quantities in consistent (cm) units.
d=0.1cm,D=50cm,μ=1.5,Δx=0.2cm
Step 2:Substitute into the fringe-shift relation.
0.2=0.150×t×(1.5−1)=0.150×0.5t
Step 3:Solve for the sheet thickness.
t=2500.2=8×10−4cm
Final answer: 8×10−4 cm
Q36Single correctAtoms and Nuclei
If an alpha particle with energy 7.7 MeV is bombarded on a thin gold foil, the closest distance from nucleus it can reach is ________m. (Atomic number of gold = 79 and 4π∈01=9×109 in SI units)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12.95×10−14
Approach:
At the distance of closest approach the alpha particle is momentarily at rest, so its initial kinetic energy is entirely converted into Coulomb potential energy between the alpha (2e) and the gold nucleus (79e).
Step 1:Convert the kinetic energy to joules and note the constant.
KE=7.7×106×1.6×10−19J,k=9×109
Step 2:Set Coulomb PE equal to KE and solve for r.
r=KEk(2e)(79e)=KEk⋅158e2
Step 3:Substitute numerical values.
r=7.7×106×1.6×10−199×109×158×(1.6×10−19)2
Step 4:Simplify and evaluate.
r=7.7×1069×109×79×1.6×10−19×2≈2.95×10−14m
Final answer: 2.95×10−14 m
Q37Single correctWork, Energy and Power
Potential energy (V) versus distance (x) is given by the graph. Rank various regions as per the magnitudes of the force.(F) acting on a particle from high to low.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4FBC>FAB>FDE>FCD
Approach:
The force on the particle is F=−dV/dx, so its magnitude equals the magnitude of the slope of the V versus x graph; compute each segment's slope and rank by magnitude.
Step 1:Read the segment endpoints from the V-x graph.
Step 3:Take magnitudes, since force magnitude is proportional to the slope magnitude.
∣mBC∣=3>∣mAB∣=1>∣mDE∣=21>∣mCD∣=0
Step 4:Write the force ranking from high to low.
FBC>FAB>FDE>FCD
Final answer: FBC>FAB>FDE>FCD
Q38Single correctWaves
Two strings (A,B) having linear densities μA=2×10−4kg/m and μB=4×10−4kg/m and lengths LA=2.5m and LB=1.5m respectively are joined. Free ends of A and B are tied to two rigid supports C and D, respectively creating a tension of 500 N in the wire. Two identical pulses, sent from C and D ends, take time t1 and t2 respectively, to reach the joint. The ratio t1/t2 is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 31.18
Approach:
A transverse pulse travels at v=T/μ on each string; the time to reach the joint is length over speed. The common tension cancels in the ratio t1/t2.
Step 1:List the data for the two strings, joined under common tension T=500 N.
μA=2×10−4,μB=4×10−4,LA=2.5,LB=1.5,T=500
Step 2:Form the time ratio; the tension cancels.
t2t1=LBμB/TLAμA/T=LBLAμBμA
Step 3:Substitute the values.
t2t1=1.52.54×10−42×10−4=35⋅21=325
Step 4:Evaluate the numerical ratio.
325=4.2435≈1.18
Final answer: 1.18
Q39Single correctUnits and Measurements
Consider a modified Bernoulli equation. (P+Bt2A)+ρg(h+Bt)+21ρV2= Constant If f has the dimension of time then the dimension A and B are _____, _____ respectively.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2[ML0T−1] and [M0LT−1]
Approach:
Apply the principle of dimensional homogeneity: every additive term must carry the dimension of pressure. Use [Bt]= length to obtain [B], then equate [A/(Bt2)] to pressure to obtain [A].
Step 1:State targets: t has dimension of time; find [A] and [B] from homogeneity of the term ρg(h+Bt) and the pressure term A/(Bt2).
[t]=T
Step 2:In (h+Bt), Bt must have the dimension of h (length).
[Bt]=L⇒[B]=TL=M0LT−1
Step 3:The term A/(Bt2) is added to pressure P, so it equals pressure dimensionally.
[B][t]2[A]=[P]⇒[A]=[P][B][t]2
Step 4:Substitute the dimensions and simplify.
[A]=(ML−1T−2)(LT−1)(T2)=ML0T−1
Final answer: [A]=[ML0T−1] and [B]=[M0LT−1] (option 2)
Q40Single correctGravitation
Initially a satellite of 100 kg is in a circular orbit of radius 1.5RE. This satellite can be moved to a circular orbit of radius 3RE by supplying α×106J of energy The value of α is __________ (Take Radius of Earth RE=6×106 m and g =10m/s2 )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 31000
Approach:
The total mechanical energy of a circular orbit is −GMm/2r. Energy supplied equals the difference between final and initial orbital energies. Replace GM by gRE2.
Step 1:Define radii and data.
ri=1.5RE,rf=3RE,m=100,RE=6×106,g=10
Step 2:Energy difference between final and initial orbits.
ΔE=−2GMm(3RE1−1.5RE1)=6REGMm
Step 3:Replace GM=gRE2.
ΔE=6REgRE2m=6gREm
Step 4:Substitute numbers.
ΔE=610×6×106×100=109J
Step 5:Express as α×106.
109=α×106⇒α=1000
Final answer: α=1000 (option 3)
Q41Single correctMechanical Properties of Fluids
Water flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. The difference in height between the water Columns in vertical tubes is 5 cm and the area of cross-sections at A and B are 6cm2 and 3cm2 respectively. The rate of flown will be ________cm3/s . (take g=10m/s2 )
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12003
Approach:
Apply continuity and Bernoulli to the wide (A) and narrow (B) sections of a horizontal venturi tube. The column height difference gives the pressure difference ρgH, leading to the venturi flow-rate formula. Work in CGS.
Step 1:Define given quantities in CGS.
a1=6cm2,a2=3cm2,H=5cm,g=1000cm/s2
Step 2:Geometric factor from continuity + Bernoulli.
a12−a22=36−9=27=33
Step 3:Compute 2gH.
2×1000×5=10000=100cm/s
Step 4:Apply the venturi formula.
Q=a12−a22a1a22gH=336×3×100=3600
Step 5:Rationalise.
Q=3600=2003cm3/s
Final answer: Q=2003cm3/s (option 1)
Q42Single correctElectromagnetic Waves
The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by: Ey=69sin[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t]V/m The expansion for magnetic field associated with this electromagnetic wave is _____T.
For a plane EM wave, B has the same phase as E, amplitude B0=E0/c, and orientation set by E^×B^=k^ (propagation direction).
Step 1:Read propagation direction and E orientation from the given wave.
phase 0.6×103x−1.8×1011t⇒ propagation along +x; E along y
Step 2:Compute the magnetic amplitude.
B0=3×10869=2.3×10−7T
Step 3:Find the field direction from E^×B^=k^.
y^×z^=x^⇒B along +z
Step 4:Write B with identical phase to E.
Bz=2.3×10−7sin[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t]
Final answer: Bz=2.3×10−7sin[0.6×103x−1.8×1011t]T (option 2)
Q43Single correctElectrostatic Potential and Capacitance
A parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C, when there is vacuum within the parallel plates. A sheet having thickness (31)rd of the separation between the plates and relative permittivity K is introduced between the plates. The new capacitance of the system is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12K+13KC
Approach:
Treat the plate gap as the vacuum region with a dielectric slab of thickness t=d/3 inserted. Use the standard slab-capacitance formula and express in terms of C=Aε0/d.
Step 1:Define slab thickness and permittivity.
t=3d, relative permittivity K
Step 2:Insert into the slab formula and factor out C.
C′=d−3d(1−K1)Aε0=1−31(1−K1)C
Step 3:Simplify the denominator.
1−31+3K1=32+3K1=3K2K+1
Step 4:Invert to obtain C′.
C′=2K+13KC
Final answer: C′=2K+13KC (option 1)
Q44Single correctUnits and Measurements
In an experiment the values of two spring constants were measured as k1=(10±0.2)N/m and k2=(20±0.3)N/m . If these spring are connected in parallel, then the percentage error in equivalent spring constant is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 11.67%
Approach:
Springs in parallel add: K=k1+k2. For a sum, absolute uncertainties add. Convert the absolute error to a percentage of K.
Step 1:Define measured values.
k1=10±0.2,k2=20±0.3 N/m
Step 2:Equivalent constant.
K=10+20=30N/m
Step 3:Add absolute uncertainties.
ΔK=0.2+0.3=0.5N/m
Step 4:Percentage error.
KΔK×100=300.5×100=1.67%
Final answer: 1.67% (option 1)
Q45Single correctThermal Properties of Matter
An aluminium and steel rods having same lengths and cross-sections are joined to make total length of 120 cm at 300C. The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminium and steel are 24×10−6/0C and 1.2×10−5/0C, respectively. The length of this composite rod when its temperature is raised to 1000C, is ________cm
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4120.15
Approach:
The composite rod is two equal halves (60 cm each) of aluminium and steel in series. Each expands by L0αΔT; add both expansions to the original 120 cm.
Step 1:Define data; each rod length 60 cm, temperature rise ΔT=70∘C.
L0=60,ΔT=70,αAl=24×10−6,αst=1.2×10−5
Step 2:Aluminium rod expansion.
ΔLAl=60×24×10−6×70=0.1008cm
Step 3:Steel rod expansion.
ΔLst=60×1.2×10−5×70=0.0504cm
Step 4:Add expansions to original length.
L=120+0.1008+0.0504=120.1512cm
Final answer: L≈120.15 cm (option 4)
Q46NumericalRay Optics and Optical Instruments
In a microscope, the objective is having focal length fo=2cm and eye-piece is having focal length fe=4cm. The tube length is 32cm. The magnification produced by this microscope for normal adjustment is ______.
SolutionAnswer: 100
Approach:
For a compound microscope in normal adjustment (image at near point D=25 cm), the magnification is the product of objective linear magnification (tube length over fo) and eyepiece angular magnification (D/fe).
Step 1:Define data with near point D=25 cm.
fo=2,fe=4,L=32,D=25 (cm)
Step 2:Substitute into the magnification formula.
M=fofeLD=2×432×25
Step 3:Evaluate.
M=8800=100
Final answer: M=100
Q47NumericalRay Optics and Optical Instruments
A collimated beam of light diameter 2mm is propagating along x-axis. The beam is required to be expanded in a collimated beam of diameter 14 mm using a system of two convex lenses. If first lens has focal length 40 mm, then the focal length of second lens is _____mm.
SolutionAnswer: 280
Approach:
A two-convex-lens beam expander (Keplerian) magnifies a collimated beam by the ratio of focal lengths, which equals the output-to-input diameter ratio. Solve for f2.
Step 1:Define data.
D1=2mm,D2=14mm,f1=40mm
Step 2:Apply the diameter-to-focal-length ratio.
f2=f1D1D2=40×214
Step 3:Evaluate.
f2=40×7=280mm
Final answer: f2=280 mm
Q48NumericalThermodynamics
A 10 mole of oxygen is heated at constant volume from 30oC to 40oC. The change in the internal energy of gas is _____Cal. (The molar specific heat of oxygen at constant pressure. CP=7Cal/moloC and R=2Cal/moloC )
SolutionAnswer: 500
Approach:
At constant volume, ΔU=nCVΔT. Obtain CV from Mayer's relation CP−CV=R.
Step 1:Define data; temperature change ΔT=10∘C.
n=10,CP=7,R=2 cal/(mol⋅∘C), ΔT=10
Step 2:Find CV.
CV=CP−R=7−2=5cal/(mol⋅∘C)
Step 3:Apply the internal-energy formula.
ΔU=nCVΔT=10×5×10
Step 4:Evaluate.
ΔU=500cal
Final answer: ΔU=500 Cal
Q49NumericalRotational Motion
Two identical thin rods of mass M kg and length L m are connected as shown in figure. Moment of inertia of the combined rod system about an axis passing through point P and perpendicular to the plane of the rods is 12xML2kgm2. The value of x is __________
SolutionAnswer: 17
Approach:
The system is a T-shape: a vertical rod with point P at its top end, joined at its lower end to the centre of a horizontal rod, distance L from P. Add the moment of inertia of the vertical rod about its end P and the horizontal rod about P via the parallel-axis theorem.
Step 1:Geometry: P at top of vertical rod; horizontal rod centre is at the vertical rod's lower end, a distance L from P.
d=L for the horizontal rod's centre from P
Step 2:Vertical rod about its end P.
I1=3ML2
Step 3:Horizontal rod about P: centre value plus parallel-axis shift L.
I2=12ML2+ML2
Step 4:Sum the contributions.
I=3ML2+12ML2+ML2=124+1+12ML2=1217ML2
Step 5:Compare with 12xML2.
12x=1217⇒x=17
Final answer: x=17
Q50NumericalCurrent Electricity
The heat generated in 1 minute between points A and B in the given circuit, when a battery of 9 V with internal resistance of 1 Ω is connected across these points is _________ J.
SolutionAnswer: 1080
Approach:
The four resistors (1Ω,2Ω top; 2Ω,4Ω bottom) with the central 1Ω form a balanced Wheatstone bridge, so the bridge arm carries no current. Reduce the two series branches in parallel, add internal resistance, find current, then apply Joule heating for 60 s.
Step 1:Check balance condition for the bridge.
21=42, balanced; central 1Ω carries no current
Step 2:Reduce: top branch 1+2=3Ω, bottom branch 2+4=6Ω, in parallel.
RAB=3+63×6=918=2Ω
Step 3:Total current including internal resistance r=1Ω.
i=RAB+r9=2+19=3A
Step 4:Heat generated between A and B (across RAB) in t=60 s.
H=i2RABt=32×2×60=1080J
Final answer: H=1080 J
Chemistry25 questions
Q51Single correctd- and f-Block Elements
MnO42− in acidic medium; disproportionates to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 4MnO4− and MnO2
Approach:
Manganate(VI) ion MnO42− is stable only in strongly alkaline medium; in acid it undergoes disproportionation. Assign the Mn oxidation state and split it into a simultaneous oxidation and reduction, then balance the redox equation.
Step 1:Determine the oxidation state of Mn in manganate.
O=−2,4(−2)+x=−2⇒x=+6
Step 2:Identify the two half changes of disproportionation about +6.
+6−e−+7(MnO4−);+6+2e−+4(MnO2)
Step 3:Balance electrons (2 oxidised per 1 reduced) and complete with H+ and water.
3MnO42−+4H+→2MnO4−+MnO2+2H2O
Final answer: MnO4− and MnO2
Q52Single correctPurification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds
In Carius method; 0.75g of an organic compound give 1.2 gm of barium sulphate. Find percentage of sulphur (molar mass 32 gmol−1). Molar mass of barium sulphate is 233 gmol−1.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 221.97%
Approach:
In the Carius method sulphur is converted quantitatively to BaSO4. The mass fraction of S in BaSO4 times the precipitate-to-sample mass ratio gives the percentage of sulphur in the compound.
Step 1:List the given data.
mcmpd=0.75g,mBaSO4=1.2g,MS=32,MBaSO4=233
Step 2:Substitute into the formula.
%S=23332×0.751.2×100
Step 3:Evaluate the arithmetic.
0.751.2=1.6;23332=0.13734;0.13734×1.6×100=21.97
Final answer: 21.97%
Q53Single correctChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Given below are two statement: Statement – I: The number of species among SF4, NH4+, [NiCl4], XeF4, [PtCl4]2−, SeF4 and [Ni(CN)4]2− that have tetrahedral geometry is 3. Statement – II: In the set [NO2,BeH2,BF3,AlCl3]; all the molecules have incomplete octet around central atom.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Approach:
Statement-I: assign VSEPR/hybridisation geometry to each listed species and count the tetrahedral ones, comparing with the claimed value 3. Statement-II: test whether every molecule in the set has an incomplete octet at the central atom.
Step 1:Assign geometry of each Statement-I species.
Step 2:Count tetrahedral species and compare to 3.
tetrahedral =NH4+(+[NiCl4]2−)⇒ count ≤2=3
Step 3:Examine octet status of Statement-II set.
NO2 (odd-electron, 17 e− on N region), BeH2 (4 e−), BF3 (6 e−), AlCl3 (6 e−)
Step 4:Combine the two verdicts to pick the option.
I false, II true
Final answer: Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Q54Single correctBiomolecules
Identify correct statements: A: Arginine and Tryptonphan, are essential Amino acid. B: Histidine does not contain heterocyclic ring in its structure. C: Proline is a six membered ring cyclic amino acid. D: Glyncine does not have chiral center. E: Cysteine has characteristic feature of side chain as MeS−CH2−CH2−. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A and D only
Approach:
Evaluate each lettered statement against standard amino-acid facts (essential amino acids, ring structures, chirality, side-chain identities) and select the set of true statements.
Step 1:Test A: essential amino acids.
Arginine and tryptophan are essential
Step 2:Test D: chirality of glycine.
H2N-CH2-COOH: α-C bears two H, so no chiral centre
Step 3:Test B, C, E for errors.
B: histidine HAS an imidazole (heterocyclic) ring -> false; C: proline is a 5-membered ring -> false; E: MeS-CH2-CH2- is the methionine side chain, not cysteine (-CH2-SH) -> false
Step 4:Select the correct set.
true statements = A and D
Final answer: A and D only
Q55Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
For the reaction N2O4⇌2NO2, graph is plotted as shown below. Identify correct statements. A. Standard free energy change for the reaction is −5.40kJmol−1. B. As ΔG(−) in graph is positive. N2O4 Will not dissociate into NO2 at all. C. Reverse reaction will go to completion. D. When 1 mole of N2O4 changes into equilibrium mixture, value of ΔG(−)=−0.84kJmol−1. E. When 2 mole of NO2 changes into equilibrium mixture, ΔG(−) for equilibrium mixture is −6.24kJmol−1. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3D and E only
Approach:
Read the Gibbs-energy versus extent-of-dissociation curve. The minimum E lies below the pure-N2O4 level A by 0.84 kJ/mol, and the pure-NO2 level B lies above A by 5.40 kJ/mol. Use that any approach toward the equilibrium minimum has ΔG<0, and evaluate each statement.
Step 1:Read graph values.
GA→GE drop =0.84; GA→GB rise =5.40; so GB→GE=5.40+0.84=6.24
Step 2:Statement D: 1 mol pure N2O4 (level A) approaching equilibrium (E).
ΔG=GE−GA=−0.84kJmol−1
Step 3:Statement E: 2 mol pure NO2 (level B) approaching equilibrium (E).
ΔG=GE−GB=−(0.84+5.40)=−6.24kJmol−1
Step 4:Reject A, B, C.
A misstates ΔG∘; B is false (N2O4 DOES partly dissociate to the minimum); C is false (reverse reaction stops at equilibrium, not completion)
A hydrocarbon 'P' (C4H8) on reaction with HCl gives an optically active Compound Q (C4H9Cl) which on reaction with one mole of ammonia gives compound 'R' (C4H11N). 'R' on diazotization followed by hydrolysis gives 'S'. Identify P, Q, R and S.
Take P as but-2-ene (gives a chiral chloride). Add HCl by Markovnikov/electrophilic addition to obtain the optically active 2-chlorobutane Q, substitute with ammonia to the amine R, then diazotise and hydrolyse to the alcohol S.
Step 1:Identify P and add HCl to a chiral product.
An organic compound (P) on treatment with aqueous ammonia under hot condition forms (Q) which on heating with Br2 and KOH forms compound (R) having molecular formula C6H7N. Names of P, Q and R respectively are
Aqueous ammonia with a carboxylic acid under heat gives the amide Q; the amide then undergoes Hofmann bromamide degradation with Br2/KOH to give a primary amine R with one fewer carbon. Match R to C6H7N.
Step 1:P to Q with aqueous ammonia and heat.
C6H5COOH+NH3ΔC6H5CONH2 (benzamide)
Step 2:Q to R via Hofmann degradation.
C6H5CONH2Br2/KOHC6H5NH2
Step 3:Check R against the given molecular formula.
aniline C6H5NH2=C6H7N
Step 4:Name P, Q, R.
benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline
Final answer: Benzoic acid, benzamide, aniline
Q58Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
From the following the least stable structure is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Structure with a carbanion adjacent to the positively charged nitrogen (least stable)
Approach:
These are resonance (canonical) forms of a conjugated nitro-butadienyl system. Rank stability by the standard rules: full conjugation/charge delocalisation and placement of negative charge on electronegative atoms stabilise; an isolated carbocation adjacent to a carbanion that is not conjugated through the π-system is the most destabilised.
Step 1:State the stability criteria for canonical forms.
more covalent bonds + charge on electronegative atoms = more stable; localised + adjacent unlike charges not in conjugation = less stable
Step 2:Apply to the four structures.
option 3 places a terminal C=C still present (un-conjugated) with an isolated + carbocation and a separate carbanion (−) that is not delocalised into the nitro group, i.e. broken conjugation
Step 3:Compare and select the least stable form.
the non-conjugated carbocation/carbanion structure is the least stable contributor
Final answer: The canonical form with an isolated carbocation and a non-conjugated carbanion (charges not delocalised into the nitro group), i.e. option 3, is the least stable.
Q59Single correctAldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
An organic compound 'P' of molecular formula C6H12O3 gives positive iodoform test but negative Tollen's test. When 'P' is treated with dilute acid, it produces 'Q'. 'Q' gives positive Tollen's test and also iodoform test. The structure of 'P' is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1CH3-CO-CH2-CH(OCH3)2 (a methyl ketone with an acetal)
Approach:
Positive iodoform requires a methyl ketone (CH3-CO-) group; negative Tollens that turns positive only after dilute-acid treatment indicates a masked aldehyde, i.e. an acetal -CH(OR)2 that hydrolyses to -CHO. Build P with C6H12O3 containing a methyl ketone plus a dimethyl acetal.
Step 1:Interpret the test results on P.
iodoform + => methyl ketone present; Tollens - (no free CHO) but + after acid => an acetal that unmasks an aldehyde
Step 2:Write a C6H12O3 structure fitting both tests.
P=CH3COCH2CH(OCH3)2
Step 3:Hydrolyse P with dilute acid to give Q.
CH3COCH2CH(OCH3)2H3O+CH3COCH2CHO
Step 4:Confirm Q gives both tests.
Q has both CH3CO- (iodoform +) and a free -CHO (Tollens +)
Final answer: CH3-CO-CH2-CH(OCH3)2 (option 1): a methyl ketone bearing a dimethyl acetal.
Q60Single correctCoordination Compounds
Given below are two statements: Statement–I: Among [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [Ni(en)3]2+, [Ni(NH3)6]2+ and [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Mn(H2O)6]2+ has the maximum number of unpaired electrons. Statement–II: The number of pairs among {[NiCl4]2−,[Ni(CO)4]}, {[NiCl4]2−,[Ni(CN)4]2−} and {[Ni(CO)4],[Ni(CN)4]2−} that contain only diamagnetic species is two. In the light of the above statements, those the correct answer from the given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
Approach:
Statement-I: determine the d-electron count and unpaired electrons of each metal centre; the complex with the most unpaired electrons is identified. Statement-II: classify each Ni species as diamagnetic or paramagnetic and count how many of the three given pairs contain only diamagnetic species.
Step 1:Count unpaired electrons for Statement-I.
Mn2+=3d5 (5 unpaired); Cu2+=3d9 (1); Ni2+=3d8 (2 in [Ni(en)3]2+ and [Ni(NH3)6]2+)
Step 2:Classify the four nickel species in Statement-II.
Step 3:Count pairs containing only diamagnetic species.
pairs: {NiCl4,Ni(CO)4} mixed; {NiCl4,Ni(CN)4} mixed; {Ni(CO)4,Ni(CN)4} both diamagnetic ⇒ only 1 pair
Step 4:Combine verdicts.
I true, II false
Final answer: Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
Q61Single correctClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
Which of the following represents the correct trend for the mentioned property? A: F>P>S>B – First Ionisation Energy. B: Cl>F>S>P – Electron Affinity. C: K>Al>Mg>B – Metallic Character. D: K2O>Na2O>MgO>Al2O3 - Basic character. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A, B and D only
Approach:
Check each stated periodic order against the accepted trend for first ionisation energy, electron affinity, metallic character, and oxide basicity, then select the set of correct trends.
Step 1:Trend A: first ionisation energy.
F>P>S>B: F highest; P > S (half-filled 3p3 stability) > B; order correct
Step 2:Trend B: electron affinity.
Cl>F>S>P: Cl > F (small F atom electron repulsion); S > P; order correct
Step 3:Trend C: metallic character.
stated K>Al>Mg>B is wrong; correct order is K>Mg>Al>B
Step 4:Trend D: basic character of oxides.
K2O>Na2O>MgO>Al2O3: basicity falls left-to-right / up a group; order correct
Step 5:Select correct set.
A, B and D
Final answer: A, B and D only
Q62Single correctSome Basic Concepts in Chemistry
80mL of a hydrocarbon on mixing with 264ml of oxygen in a closed U-tube undergoes complete combustion. The residual gases after cooling to 273K occupy 224mL. When the system is treated with KOH solution, the volume decreases to 64mL. The formula of the hydrocarbon is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3C2H2
Approach:
Eudiometry at constant T,P: equal gas volumes are proportional to moles (Avogadro). CO2 is the volume absorbed by KOH; the leftover after KOH is excess O2. Use the CO2 volume for the carbon count and the consumed O2 for the hydrogen count.
Step 1:List measured volumes.
VHC=80,VO2=264;Vresidual=224(after water condensed at 273K);VafterKOH=64
Step 2:Find CO2 (absorbed by KOH) and hence x.
VCO2=224−64=160;x=80160=2
Step 3:Excess O2 is the 64 mL left after KOH; find O2 consumed.
VO2,used=264−64=200;x+4y=80200=2.5
Step 4:Solve for y.
2+4y=2.5⇒4y=0.5⇒y=2
Step 5:State the formula.
CxHy=C2H2
Final answer: C2H2
Q63Single correctp-Block Elements
Given below are two statements: Statement – I: The number of pairs among [SiO2,CO2], [SnO,SnO2], [PbO,PbO2] and [GeO,GeO2] which contains oxides that are both amphoteric is 2. Statement – II: BF3 is an electron deficient molecule, act as a Lewis acid forms adduct with NH3 and has a trigonal planar geometry. In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Approach:
Statement-I: examine each oxide pair and count how many pairs have BOTH oxides amphoteric. Statement-II: verify the bonding facts about BF3 (electron deficiency, Lewis acidity, adduct with NH3, geometry).
Step 1:Classify each oxide pair for amphoterism.
[SiO2,CO2]: SiO2 weakly acidic, CO2 acidic → not both amphoteric; [SnO,SnO2]: both amphoteric; [PbO,PbO2]: both amphoteric; [GeO,GeO2]: GeO2 amphoteric but GeO not → no
Step 2:Count and conclude Statement-I.
number of fully amphoteric pairs =2
Step 3:Verify Statement-II facts about BF3.
B has 6 electrons (incomplete octet) -> electron deficient; acts as Lewis acid; forms adduct F3B←NH3; sp2, trigonal planar geometry
Step 4:Combine the verdicts.
I true, II true
Final answer: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Q64Single correctSolutions
Elements 'P' and 'Q' from two types of non-volatile; non-ionizable compounds PQ and PQ2. When 1g of PQ is dissolved in 50g of solvent 'A'; ΔTb was 1.176 K while when 1g of PQ2 is dissolved in 50g of of solvent 'A'; ΔTb was 0.689K. (Kb of A is 5 K kg mol−1). The molar masses of element P and Q (in g mol−1) respectively are
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 225,60
Approach:
From each boiling-point elevation, compute the solute molar mass via the colligative relation, obtaining M(PQ) and M(PQ2); then write two linear equations in the atomic masses P and Q and solve the system.
Step 1:List the given data for both solutions in solvent A.
w=1 g,W=50 g,Kb=5 K kg mol−1,ΔTb(PQ)=1.176 K,ΔTb(PQ2)=0.689 K
Step 2:Compute molar mass of PQ from its boiling-point elevation.
MPQ=1.176×505×1×1000=58.85000=85
Step 3:Compute molar mass of PQ2 from its boiling-point elevation.
MPQ2=0.689×505×1×1000=34.455000=145
Step 4:Write the two atomic-mass equations and subtract to isolate Q, then back-substitute for P.
Q65Single correctSome Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Identify correct statements from the following : A) Propanal and propanone are functional isomers B) Ethoxyethane and methoxy propane are metamers C) But-2-ene shows optical isomerism D) But-1-ene and But-2-ene are functional isomers E) Pentane and 2,2-dimethyl propane are chain isomers Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1A, B and E only
Approach:
Apply the precise definition of each isomerism class to every statement A-E, classifying the relationship of each named pair, and select the set whose classifications are all correct.
Step 1:Statement A: propanal vs propanone, both C3H6O.
CH3CH2CHO(aldehyde)/CH3COCH3(ketone)
Step 2:Statement B: ethoxyethane vs methoxypropane, both C4H10O.
C2H5-O-C2H5/CH3-O-C3H7
Step 3:Statement E: pentane vs 2,2-dimethylpropane, both C5H12.
CH3(CH2)3CH3/C(CH3)4
Step 4:Statement C: but-2-ene has a C=C with two different groups on each carbon and no stereocentre, so it shows geometrical (cis-trans), not optical, isomerism; Statement D: but-1-ene and but-2-ene differ only in the position of the double bond, making them position isomers, not functional isomers.
C: geometrical not optical⇒false;D: position not functional⇒false
Final answer: A, B and E only — Option 1
Q66Single correctHydrocarbons
Identify 'A' in the following reaction: A2H2/Pt (decalin) ; AKMnO4Δ (cyclohexane-1,2-dicarboxylic acid, COOH, COOH) + (oxalic acid COOH, COOH)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3Octahydronaphthalene with the double bond at the ring-fusion region (the isomer giving the stated products)
Approach:
Use the catalytic-hydrogenation stoichiometry to count the degrees of unsaturation in A, then use the specific oxidative-cleavage products to fix the positions of the two C=C bonds within the fused bicyclic framework.
Step 1:Interpret the hydrogenation: addition of 2 H2 over Pt converts A to decalin (decahydronaphthalene), so A is a fully fused bicyclic C10 ring system carrying exactly two C=C bonds (an octahydronaphthalene).
A+2H2/Pt→decalin⇒Ahas 2 C=C
Step 2:Apply oxidative cleavage: the products are cyclohexane-1,2-dicarboxylic acid (an intact six-membered carbocycle bearing two adjacent -COOH) plus oxalic acid (HOOC-COOH, a two-carbon diacid). This requires the two C=C bonds to lie wholly within one ring, cleaving a two-carbon fragment to oxalic acid while leaving the other ring intact as the 1,2-dicarboxylic acid.
AKMnO4/Δcyclohexane-1,2-(COOH)2+(COOH)2
Step 3:Select the structure: the isomer of octahydronaphthalene with both C=C bonds in the same (right-hand) ring, positioned so cleavage excises a -CH=CH- pair as oxalic acid and yields the adjacent ring as the 1,2-diacid, matches both observations.
A=octahydronaphthalene with the C=C bonds in the right-hand ring
Final answer: Octahydronaphthalene with the two C=C bonds in the right-hand ring (the isomer giving cyclohexane-1,2-dicarboxylic acid and oxalic acid) — Option 3
Q67Single correctChemical Thermodynamics
Which of the following graphs pressure 'P' versus volume 'V' represents the maximum workdone?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1Curve expanding from (22.4,2.0) to (44.8,1.0) — largest area under the curve (option 1)
Approach:
Work done by an expanding gas equals the area enclosed under its P-V expansion path; evaluate each graph for direction (expansion vs compression vs isochoric) and enclosed area, selecting the expansion process with the largest area.
Step 1:State the criterion: positive work requires increasing volume (dV>0); the magnitude equals the area under the path. A constant-volume step contributes zero work and a compression contributes negative work.
W>0whendV>0;W=area under curve
Step 2:Examine the four graphs. Graph 2 is an isobaric step then an isochoric vertical drop (small area). Graph 3 carries arrows of compression/return (work not maximal positive). Graph 4 is a closed lens-shaped loop (net area, not a single maximal expansion). Graph 1 is a single reversible expansion curve from (22.4 L, 2.0 bar) to (44.8 L, 1.0 bar) sweeping the largest area under the path.
Graph 1: (22.4,2.0)→(44.8,1.0),largest area, dV>0
Step 3:Select the graph giving maximum work done by the gas.
Wmax⇒reversible expansion curve (Graph 1)
Final answer: The reversible expansion curve from (22.4 L,2.0 bar) to (44.8 L,1.0 bar) — Option 1
Q68Single correctAtomic Structure
Statement – I: When an electric discharge is passed through gaseous hydrogen, the hydrogen molecules dissociate and the energetically excited hydrogen atoms produce electromagnetic radiation of discrete frequencies. Statement – II: The frequency of second line Balmer series obtained from He+ equal to that of first line of Lyman series obtained from hydrogen atom. In the light of the above statements, Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Approach:
Assess Statement-I against the known origin of the hydrogen line spectrum, then test Statement-II quantitatively using the Bohr/Rydberg frequency relation with explicit Z2 scaling for the H first Lyman line and the He+ second Balmer line.
Step 1:Statement-I: an electric discharge dissociates H2 into atoms; excited H atoms relax between quantized levels, emitting radiation only at discrete (quantized) frequencies — the line spectrum. This is correct.
H2discharge2H∗→discrete ν
Step 2:Compute the H first Lyman line factor (Z=1, n1=1, n2=2).
νH∝12(11−41)=1×43=43
Step 3:Compute the He+ second Balmer line factor (Z=2, n1=2, transition to n2=4 for the second member).
νHe+∝22(41−161)=4×163=43
Step 4:Compare: the two proportionality factors are identical, so the two frequencies are equal. Statement-II is correct.
νH=νHe+⇒Statement-II true
Final answer: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true — Option 2
Q69Single correctp-Block Elements
Consider the following reactions. PbCl2+K2CrO4⟶A+2KCl (Hot solution) A+NaOHB+Na2CrO4 PbSO4+4CH3COONH4⟶(NH4)2SO4+X In the above reactions, A, B and X are respectively.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3PbCrO4,Na2[Pb(OH)4] and (NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4]
Approach:
Trace the three lead reactions sequentially: precipitation of lead chromate, its amphoteric dissolution in excess base to a plumbite, and the acetate displacement forming an acetato-plumbate complex, identifying A, B and X.
Step 1:Reaction 1: hot PbCl2 with K2CrO4 precipitates yellow lead chromate, giving A.
PbCl2+K2CrO4→PbCrO4+2KCl⇒A=PbCrO4
Step 2:Reaction 2: PbCrO4 (amphoteric lead centre) dissolves in NaOH releasing chromate and forming the tetrahydroxoplumbate(II), giving B.
Final answer: A=PbCrO4,B=Na2[Pb(OH)4],X=(NH4)2[Pb(CH3COO)4] — Option 3
Q70Single correctSome Basic Concepts in Chemistry
14.0gm of calcium metal is allowed to react with excess HCl at 1.0 atm pressure and 273K which of the following statements is incorrect? [Given molar mass in gmol−1 of Ca – 40; Cl – 35.5; H – 1.]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 433.3 g of CaCl2 is produced
Approach:
Compute moles of calcium, apply the stoichiometry Ca+2HCl→CaCl2+H2 to evaluate H2 moles and volume at STP, the limiting reagent and the CaCl2 mass, then identify the single statement that is false.
Step 1:Moles of Ca; HCl is in excess so 1:1 stoichiometry gives equal moles of H2 and CaCl2.
nCa=4014=0.35 mol⇒nH2=nCaCl2=0.35 mol
Step 2:Volume of H2 at 1 atm, 273 K (STP, 22.4 L/mol).
VH2=0.35×22.4=7.84 L
Step 3:Limiting reagent: HCl is supplied in excess, so calcium limits the reaction.
HCl excess⇒Ca is limiting
Step 4:Mass of CaCl2 (M=40+2×35.5=111): the produced mass is 38.85 g, not 33.3 g, so statement 4 is false.
mCaCl2=0.35×111=38.85 g=33.3 g
Final answer: The incorrect statement is "33.3 g of CaCl2 is produced" (true value 38.85 g) — Option 4
Q71NumericalChemical Kinetics
Pre-exponential factors of two different reactions of same order are identical. Let activation energy of first reaction exceeds the activation energy of second reaction by 20 kJ mol−1. If k1 and k2 are the rate constants of first and second reaction respectively at 300 K, then lnk1k2 will be ____. (nearest integer) [R=8.3] K−1mol−1
SolutionAnswer: 8
Approach:
With identical pre-exponential factors, take the ratio of the two Arrhenius rate constants so A cancels; the logarithm of the ratio depends only on the activation-energy difference, which is then evaluated at 300 K.
Step 1:List data: the first reaction's activation energy exceeds the second's by 20 kJ/mol; identical A; T = 300 K, R = 8.3.
Ea1−Ea2=20000 J mol−1,T=300 K,R=8.3
Step 2:Form the ratio of rate constants; equal A cancels, and dividing exponentials gives the difference of activation energies in the exponent.
lnk1k2=lnAe−Ea1/RTAe−Ea2/RT=RTEa1−Ea2
Step 3:Substitute and evaluate.
lnk1k2=8.3×30020000=249020000=8.03≈8
Final answer: lnk1k2=8 (nearest integer)
Q72Numericald- and f-Block Elements
Consider the following reactions: NaCl+K2Cr2O7+H2SO4⟶A+KHSO4+NaHSO4+H2OA+NaOH⟶B+NaCl+H2OB+H2SO4+H2O2⟶C+Na2SO4+H2O In the product 'C', 'X' is the number of O22− units, 'Y' is the total number oxygen atoms present and 'Z' is the oxidation state of Cr. The value of X + Y + Z is____.
SolutionAnswer: 13
Approach:
Identify each species in the chromyl-chloride sequence (A = chromyl chloride, B = sodium chromate, C = chromium pentoxide), then count peroxo units, total oxygen atoms and the oxidation state of Cr in C and sum them.
Step 1:Reaction 1 forms chromyl chloride A; reaction 2 hydrolyses it in NaOH to sodium chromate B; reaction 3 acidified chromate with H2O2 gives blue chromium pentoxide C.
A=CrO2Cl2,B=Na2CrO4,C=CrO5
Step 2:In CrO5 the structure is CrO(O2)2: two side-on peroxo (O22−) units and one doubly-bonded oxo. Count peroxo units X.
X=number of O22−=2
Step 3:Count total oxygen atoms Y in CrO5.
Y=5(one oxo + two O22−=1+4)
Step 4:Oxidation state Z of Cr: two peroxo groups contribute 2x(-2) = -4 and the oxo contributes -2; for a neutral molecule Cr balances +6.
Z+2(−2)+(−2)=0⇒Z=+6
Step 5:Sum the three quantities.
X+Y+Z=2+5+6=13
Final answer: X+Y+Z=13
Q73NumericalOrganic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Consider the following reaction sequence (benzene) conc.HNO3+conc.H2SO4333K P 1. Sn/HCl/Δ2. pH neutralised Q (CH3CO)2O R ; R conc.HNO3+conc.H2SO4 S (major product) ; S 1. HCl/EtOH, Δ2. pH neutralised T. The percentage of nitrogen in product 'T' formed is ______%. (Nearest integer) (Given molar mass in gmol−1 H: 1, C : 12, N : 14, O : 16)
SolutionAnswer: 20
Approach:
Follow the aromatic substitution sequence step by step to the final product T (4-nitroaniline), establish its molecular formula and molar mass, then compute the nitrogen mass percentage.
Step 1:Trace the sequence: benzene nitrates to nitrobenzene (P); Sn/HCl reduction then neutralisation gives aniline (Q); acetic anhydride acetylates to acetanilide (R); nitration of acetanilide (o/p-director) gives mainly p-nitroacetanilide (S); acidic HCl/EtOH hydrolysis then neutralisation removes the acetyl group to give 4-nitroaniline (T).
The pH and conductance of a weak acid (HX) was found to be 5 and 4×10−5S, respectively. The conductance was measured under standard condition using a cell where the electrode plates having a surface area of 1cm2 were at a distance of 15 cm apart. The value of the limiting molar conductivity is __________ Sm2mol−1 (nearest integer) (Given: degree of dissociation of the weak acid (α)<<1)
SolutionAnswer: 6
Approach:
Obtain the ion (and acid) concentration from pH given α≪1, compute the cell constant from the plate geometry, convert conductance to conductivity, then divide by concentration to get the molar conductivity, which equals the limiting molar conductivity because the acid is essentially undissociated.
Step 1:From pH = 5 the hydrogen-ion concentration is 10−5 M; because α≪1 the analytical acid concentration is taken equal to this ion concentration.
pH=5⇒[H+]=10−5 M;α≪1⇒C≈10−5 M
Step 2:Cell constant from l = 15 cm and a = 1 cm2; convert to SI (m−1).
G∗=1 cm215 cm=15 cm−1=1500 m−1
Step 3:Conductivity from measured conductance times cell constant.
κ=GG∗=(4×10−5)(1500)=6×10−2 S m−1
Step 4:Molar conductivity; with α≪1 the value computed from the dilute ion concentration is the limiting molar conductivity.
Λm=1000Cκ=1000×10−56×10−2=10−26×10−2=6
Final answer: Λm∘=6S m2 mol−1 (nearest integer)
Q75NumericalChemical Thermodynamics
Use the following date: Substance | kJmol−1ΔfH⊖(500K) | JK−1mol−1S⊖(500K) AB(g) | 32 | 222 A2(g) | 6 | 146 B2(g) | x | 280 One mole each of A2(g) and B2(g) are taken in a 1 L closed flask and allowed to establish the equilibrium at 500K. A2(g)+B2(g)⇌2AB(g) The value of x (in kJmol−1) is __________(Nearest integer) (Given: logK=2.2R=8.3JK−1mol−1)
SolutionAnswer: 70
Approach:
Compute the standard Gibbs energy of reaction from the equilibrium constant, the standard entropy change from the tabulated entropies, then use Gibbs-Helmholtz to find the reaction enthalpy and equate it to the formation-enthalpy expression to solve for x=ΔfH(B2).
Step 1:Reaction and data: A2(g)+B2(g)⇌2AB(g) at 500 K; logK=2.2, R = 8.3.
A2+B2⇌2AB,T=500 K,logK=2.2,R=8.3
Step 2:Standard Gibbs energy of reaction from K.
ΔG⊖=−2.303×8.3×500×2.2=−21026 J=−21.03 kJ mol−1
Step 3:Standard entropy change from tabulated S values (products minus reactants).
Step 5:Express the same enthalpy from formation enthalpies and solve for x.
ΔH⊖=2(32)−(6+x)=58−x;58−x=−12⇒x=70
Final answer: x=70kJ mol−1 (nearest integer)
Mathematics25 questions
Q1Single correctIntegral Calculus
The value of ∫−π/6π/61−sin(∣x∣+6π)π+4x11dx is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 44π
Approach:
Split the integrand into its odd and even parts; the odd part vanishes over the symmetric interval, then reduce and integrate the even part by a shift substitution.
Step 1:Separate the integrand: the constant-π piece with an even denominator, and the 4x11 piece.
Step 5:Integrate to tanθ+secθ and apply the limits.
I=2π[tanθ+secθ]π/6π/3=2π[(3+2)−(31+32)]
Step 6:Simplify: 31+32=3, so the bracket equals 2.
I=2π[(3+2)−3]=2π×2=4π
Final answer: 4π
Q2Single correctQuadratic Equations
The sum of all roots of equation (x−1)2−5∣x−1∣+6=0 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 14
Approach:
Substitute t=∣x−1∣ to obtain a quadratic in t, take the non-negative roots, recover all x, and sum them.
Step 1:Let t=∣x−1∣≥0, turning the equation into a quadratic in t.
t2−5∣x−1∣+6=0⇒t2−5t+6=0
Step 2:Factor and solve for t.
(t−2)(t−3)=0⇒t=2,t=3
Step 3:Both roots are non-negative, so each yields two valid x-values.
∣x−1∣=2⇒x=3,−1;∣x−1∣=3⇒x=4,−2
Step 4:Sum all four roots.
3+(−1)+4+(−2)=4
Final answer: 4
Q3Single correctTrigonometry
The value of cosec100−3sec100 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 34
Approach:
Combine the two reciprocal terms over a common denominator, write the numerator as a single sine, and reduce the denominator with the double-angle identity.
Step 1:Write the expression with explicit reciprocals.
E=csc10∘−3sec10∘=sin10∘1−cos10∘3
Step 2:Combine over the common denominator sin10∘cos10∘.
E=sin10∘cos10∘cos10∘−3sin10∘
Step 3:Factor 2 from the numerator to expose a sine difference with 30∘.
Step 4:Reduce the denominator with the double-angle identity.
sin10∘cos10∘=21sin20∘
Step 5:Divide; the sin20∘ factors cancel.
E=21sin20∘2sin20∘=4
Final answer: 4
Q4Single correctComplex Numbers
If x2+x+1=0, then the value of (x+x1)4+(x2+x21)4+(x3+x31)4+.....(x25+x251)4 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1145
Approach:
Identify the root as a primitive cube root of unity, evaluate xn+x−n by nmod3, raise to the fourth power, and count the contributions for n=1 to 25.
Step 1:From x2+x+1=0, x=ω with ω3=1 and x−1=ω2; the general term is (xn+x−n)4.
x=ω,ω3=1,termn=(ωn+ω−n)4
Step 2:Evaluate ωn+ω−n by residue of n mod 3.
n≡0:1+1=2;n≡0:ω+ω2=−1
Step 3:Raise each to the fourth power.
n≡0:24=16;n≡0:(−1)4=1
Step 4:For n=1 to 25, multiples of 3 are 3,6,…,24 (eight values giving 16); the remaining 17 values give 1.
#{n≡0}=8,#{n≡0}=25−8=17
Step 5:Sum the contributions.
8×16+17×1=128+17=145
Final answer: 145
Q5Single correctSequence and Series
Let a1,a2,a3....... be a G.P of increasing positive terms such that a2.a3.a4=64 & a1+a3+a5=7813 then a3+a5+a7 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 23252
Approach:
Use the product condition to fix ar2, divide the given sum to form a symmetric equation in r2, solve for r2, then write the target as r2 times the given sum.
Step 1:First term a>0, common ratio r>1 (increasing positive terms); target is a3+a5+a7.
Step 5:Note a3+a5+a7=r2(a1+a3+a5), so multiply the given sum by r2.
a3+a5+a7=28×7813=4×813=3252
Final answer: 3252
Q6Single correctSets, Relations and Functions
The number of relations, defined on the set {a,b,c,d} which are both reflexive & symmetric is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 364
Approach:
Reflexivity forces all diagonal pairs into the relation; symmetry ties each off-diagonal pair together, leaving independent binary choices over the unordered pairs.
Step 1:The set has 4 elements, so the full relation lives in 4×4=16 ordered pairs.
∣{a,b,c,d}∣=4,∣A×A∣=16
Step 2:Reflexivity forces the 4 diagonal pairs to be present, with no freedom.
(a,a),(b,b),(c,c),(d,d)∈R
Step 3:The remaining 12 off-diagonal ordered pairs form 6 unordered pairs; symmetry makes each unordered pair one independent choice.
(24)=6free pairs
Step 4:Each of the 6 pairs is independently included or excluded.
26=64
Final answer: 64
Q7Single correctDifferential Equations
Let y=y(x) be the solution curve of the differential equation ((1+x2)dy+(y−tan−1x)dx=0y(0)=1 then value of y(1) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 2eπ/42+4π−1
Approach:
Rewrite as a linear first-order ODE in y, use the integrating factor etan−1x, integrate by parts, apply y(0)=1, and evaluate at x=1.
Step 1:Divide (1+x2)dy+(y−tan−1x)dx=0 by (1+x2)dx to get standard linear form.
dxdy+1+x2y=1+x2tan−1x
Step 2:Compute the integrating factor.
μ=e∫1+x2dx=etan−1x
Step 3:Multiply through; the left side is dxd(yμ). With t=tan−1x the right integral is by parts.
yetan−1x=∫tetdt=et(t−1)+C
Step 4:Solve for y by dividing by etan−1x.
y=(tan−1x−1)+Ce−tan−1x
Step 5:Apply y(0)=1 with tan−10=0.
1=(0−1)+C⋅1⇒C=2
Step 6:Evaluate at x=1 with tan−11=4π.
y(1)=4π−1+2e−π/4=eπ/42+4π−1
Final answer: eπ/42+4π−1
Q8Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let a point A lie between the parallel lines L1 and L2 such that its distances from L1 and L2 are 6 and 3 units respectively then the area (in sq units) of equilateral triangle ABC where the Points B and C lie on lines L1 and L2 respectively is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1213
Approach:
Place the parallel lines as y=0 and y=9 with A=(a,6) and B=(0,0) on L1; rotate BA by 60∘ to reach the third vertex C, force C onto L2 to fix a, then compute the side and area.
Step 1:Set L1:y=0, L2:y=9 (distance 6+3=9), A=(a,6) at distance 6 from L1 and 3 from L2, and B=(0,0) on L1.
A=(a,6),B=(0,0),L2:y=9
Step 2:Rotate BA=(a,6) about B by 60∘ to get C.
C=(2a−33,2a3+3)
Step 3:Force C onto L2: its y-coordinate equals 9.
2a3+3=9⇒2a3=6⇒a=43
Step 4:Compute side length from ∣AB∣2=a2+62.
(side)2=(43)2+62=48+36=84
Step 5:Apply the equilateral-area formula.
Area=43×84=213
Final answer: 213
Q9Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let foci of a hyperbola coincide with the foci of the ellipse 36x2+16y2=1 if eccentricity of the hyperbola is 5 then length of its latus rectum is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 3596
Approach:
Find the ellipse foci, equate them to the hyperbola foci to determine a, use the hyperbola eccentricity to get b2, then apply the latus-rectum formula.
Step 1:For the ellipse 36x2+16y2=1, c2=36−16=20, so foci are (±20,0).
c=20,foci (±20,0)
Step 2:Hyperbola shares these foci, so aHeH=20 with eH=5.
aH=520=525=52
Step 3:Compute bH2 from the hyperbola relation.
bH2=aH2(eH2−1)=54(25−1)=54×24=596
Step 4:Apply the latus-rectum formula.
LR=aH2bH2=522×596=2/5192/5=596
Final answer: 596
Q10Single correctLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
Let f:R→(0,∞) be a twice differentiable function such that f(3)=18,fl(3)=0 and fll(3)=4 then x→1Limloge(f(3)f(2+x))(x−1)218 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 32
Approach:
Bring the exponent inside the logarithm, set u=x−1→0, expand f to second order about 3 (using f′(3)=0), and apply ln(1+z)≈z.
Step 1:Pull the exponent out; let u=x−1→0 so 2+x=3+u.
L=limu→0u218ln(f(3)f(3+u))
Step 2:Expand f(3+u) with f(3)=18,f′(3)=0,f′′(3)=4.
f(3+u)=18+0⋅u+21(4)u2=18+2u2
Step 3:Form the ratio.
f(3)f(3+u)=1818+2u2=1+9u2
Step 4:Apply the small-argument logarithm.
ln(1+9u2)≈9u2
Step 5:Substitute and cancel u2.
L=limu→0u218⋅9u2=918=2
Final answer: 2
Q11Single correctPermutations and Combinations
The number of strictly increasing functions f from set {1,2,3,4,5,6} to the set {1,2,3,.........,9} such that f(i)=i for 1≤i≤6 is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 428
Approach:
A strictly increasing integer map forces f(i)≥i; the constraint f(i)=i becomes f(i)≥i+1. Shift the values to absorb this and count by a single binomial.
Step 4:Intersect: the rational condition is met throughout [0,3/2], so the domain is [0,3/2].
Domain=[0,23]
Step 5:Read α=0,β=23 and compute α+2β.
α+2β=0+2⋅23=3
Final answer: 3
Q14Single correctIntegral Calculus
The area of the region inside the ellipse x2+4y2=4 and outside the region bounded by the curve y=∣x∣−1 and y=1−∣x∣ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 12(π−1)
Approach:
Recognize the ellipse x2+4y2=4 has semi-axes a=2,b=1; the curves y=∣x∣−1 and y=1−∣x∣ bound a square. Compute the ellipse area, the square area, and subtract since the square lies inside the ellipse.
Step 1:Rewrite the ellipse in standard form and read off the semi-axes.
4x2+1y2=1⇒a=2,b=1
Step 2:Compute the area enclosed by the ellipse.
πab=π(2)(1)=2π
Step 3:Find where the two curves meet: ∣x∣−1=1−∣x∣⇒∣x∣=1, giving the closed figure with vertices (0,1),(1,0),(0,−1),(−1,0), a square with both diagonals equal to 2.
∣x∣=1⇒(±1,0),(0,±1)
Step 4:Compute the area of this square.
21d1d2=21(2)(2)=2
Step 5:The square's vertices satisfy x2+4y2≤4, so it lies inside the ellipse; subtract the inner area from the ellipse area.
2π−2=2(π−1)
Final answer: 2(π−1)
Q15Single correctBinomial Theorem
If the coefficient of x in the expansion of (ax2+bx+c)(1−2x)26 is -56 and the coefficient of x2 and x3 are both zero then a+b+c is equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41403
Approach:
Expand (1−2x)26 to the powers x0,x1,x2,x3, write the product's coefficients of x,x2,x3 using [xn]=a[xn−2]+b[xn−1]+c[xn], set up three equations, and solve for a,b,c.
Step 1:Compute the needed coefficients of (1−2x)26.
T0=1,T1=−52,T2=1300,T3=−20800
Step 2:Set the coefficient of x to −56.
bT0+cT1=b−52c=−56
Step 3:Set the coefficient of x2 to 0.
aT0+bT1+cT2=a−52b+1300c=0
Step 4:Set the coefficient of x3 to 0.
aT1+bT2+cT3=−52a+1300b−20800c=0
Step 5:Solve the linear system.
c=3,b=52(3)−56=100,a=1300
Step 6:Add the constants.
a+b+c=1300+100+3=1403
Final answer: 1403
Q16Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let PQ and MN be two straight lines touching the circle x2+y2−4x−6y−3=0 at the point A and B respectively. Let O be centre of the circle and ∠AOB=3π then the locus of the point of intersection of the lines PQ and MN is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 33(x2+y2)−12x−18y−25=0
Approach:
Find the circle's centre O and radius r. From the external point R, two tangents touch at A,B with ∠AOB=60∘. Use the right triangle OAR to relate OR to r, compute the power S1, and write the locus.
Step 1:Read off centre and radius.
O=(2,3),r=4+9+3=4
Step 2:Since OA⊥RA, triangle OAR is right-angled at A with ∠AOR=21∠AOB=30∘, so ∠ORA=60∘ and sin∠ORA=OROA.
sin60∘=ORr⇒OR=3/24=38
Step 3:Compute the power of R with respect to the circle.
S1=OR2−r2=364−16=316
Step 4:Set S1=x2+y2−4x−6y−3 equal to 316 and clear the denominator.
3(x2+y2−4x−6y−3)=16
Step 5:Simplify.
3(x2+y2)−12x−18y−9−16=0
Final answer: 3(x2+y2)−12x−18y−25=0
Q17Single correctStatistics and Probability
Let the mean and variance of 7 observations 2,4,10,x,12,14,y,x>y, be 8 and 16 respectively two numbers are chosen form {1,2,3,x−4,y,5} one after another without replacement then the probability that the smaller number among the two chosen numbers is less than 4 is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 154
Approach:
Use the mean and variance of the seven observations to find x,y with x>y, construct the selection set {1,2,3,x−4,y,5}, then compute via complement the probability that the smaller of two chosen numbers is less than 4.
Step 1:Apply the mean to the seven values 2,4,10,x,12,14,y.
742+x+y=8⇒x+y=14
Step 2:Apply the variance: known squares sum to 4+16+100+144+196=460.
7460+x2+y2−64=16⇒x2+y2=100
Step 3:Combine to get xy, then solve the quadratic with x>y.
2xy=(x+y)2−(x2+y2)=96⇒xy=48⇒x=8,y=6
Step 4:Form the selection set.
{1,2,3,x−4,y,5}={1,2,3,4,6,5}={1,2,3,4,5,6}
Step 5:Complement event: both chosen numbers are ≥4, i.e. both from {4,5,6}.
P(both≥4)=(26)(23)=153=51
Step 6:Required probability is the complement.
P=1−51=54
Final answer: 54
Q18Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let c and d be vectors such that ∣c+d∣=29 and c×(2i+3j+4k)=(2i+3j+4k)×d .if λ1,λ2(λ1>λ2) are the possible values of (c+d).(−7i+2j+3k) then the equation K2x2+(K2−5K+λ1)xy+(3K+2λ2).y2−8x+12y+λ2=0 represents of a circle for K equal to
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 41
Approach:
Show c+d is parallel to b=(2,3,4) from the cross-product relation, use ∣c+d∣=29 to fix the scalar, compute the dot product to obtain λ1,λ2, substitute into the conic, and impose the conditions for a circle.
Step 1:From c×b=b×d=−d×b, with b=(2,3,4).
c×b+d×b=0⇒(c+d)×b=0
Step 2:Write c+d=tb and apply the magnitude with ∣b∣=29.
∣t∣29=29⇒t=±1
Step 3:Compute the projection-type dot product.
(c+d)⋅(−7,2,3)=t(2,3,4)⋅(−7,2,3)=t(−14+6+12)=±4
Step 4:Substitute λ1=4,λ2=−4 into the conic.
K2x2+(K2−5K+4)xy+(3K−2)y2−8x+12y−4=0
Step 5:Require zero xy-coefficient.
K2−5K+4=0⇒K=1or4
Step 6:Require equal x2 and y2 coefficients.
K2=3K−2⇒K2−3K+2=0⇒K=1or2
Step 7:Take the common value satisfying both.
K=1
Final answer: 1
Q19Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let O be the vertex of the parabola x2=4y and Q be any point on it let the locus of the point P which divides The line segment OQ internally in the ratio 2:3 be the conic C then the equation of the chord of C which is bisected at point (1,2) is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 15x−4y+3=0
Approach:
Parametrise Q on x2=4y, apply the internal section formula to find P dividing OQ in ratio 2:3, eliminate the parameter to get the conic C, then use T=S1 to write the chord of C bisected at (1,2).
Step 1:Take Q=(2t,t2) on x2=4y and O=(0,0); P divides OQ as 2:3.
P=(52⋅2t,52⋅t2)=(54t,52t2)
Step 2:Set (h,k)=P and eliminate t via t=45h.
k=52t2=52⋅1625h2=85h2⇒5x2=8y
Step 3:Write T=S1 for C:5x2−8y=0 at midpoint (x1,y1).
5x1x−4(y+y1)=5x12−8y1
Step 4:Substitute (x1,y1)=(1,2).
5x−4(y+2)=5−16⇒5x−4y−8=−11
Step 5:Rearrange to standard form.
5x−4y+3=0
Final answer: 5x−4y+3=0
Q20Single correctCoordinate Geometry
Let (α,β,γ) be the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (5,4,2) on the line r=(−i+3j+k)+λ(2i+3j−k) then the length of the projection of vector αi+βj+γk on the vector 6i+2j+3k is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
SolutionAnswer: Option 1718
Approach:
Express a general point B on the line, impose that AB is perpendicular to the direction d to solve for λ and find the foot, then compute the scalar projection of the foot's position vector onto (6,2,3).
Step 1:Point on line and vector from A=(5,4,2) with d=(2,3,−1).
B=(−1+2λ,3+3λ,1−λ),AB=(2λ−6,3λ−1,−λ−1)
Step 2:Impose AB⋅d=0.
2(2λ−6)+3(3λ−1)−(−λ−1)=14λ−14=0⇒λ=1
Step 3:Substitute λ=1 to get the foot (α,β,γ).
(α,β,γ)=(1,6,0)
Step 4:Project the position vector (1,6,0) onto (6,2,3), with ∣(6,2,3)∣=49=7.
7(1)(6)+(6)(2)+(0)(3)=718
Final answer: 718
Q21NumericalSequence and Series
Let a1=1 and for n≥1,an+1=21an+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1 then ∑n=1∞(an−n22) is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 2
Approach:
Define bn=an−n22 and show the recurrence forces bn+1=21bn, making bn geometric; then sum the infinite series and take the modulus.
Step 1:Define the auxiliary sequence.
bn=an−n22,b1=a1−2=−1
Step 2:Form bn+1−21bn using an+1=21an+n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1.
bn+1−21bn=n2(n+1)2n2−2n−1−(n+1)22+n21
Step 3:Combine over n2(n+1)2; the numerator vanishes identically.
n2(n+1)2(n2−2n−1)−2n2+(n2+2n+1)=n2(n+1)20=0
Step 4:Identify the geometric sequence.
bn=−(21)n−1,r=21
Step 5:Sum and take modulus.
∣∑n=1∞bn∣=1−21−1=2
Final answer: 2
Q22NumericalIntegral Calculus
6∫0π∣(sin3x+sin2x+sinx)∣dx is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 17
Approach:
Factor the integrand as sin2x(1+2cosx)=2sinxcosx(1+2cosx), substitute t=cosx, reduce to 12∫−11∣t(2t+1)∣dt, split at the sign changes, and integrate.
Step 3:The sign of t(2t+1) changes at t=−21 and t=0; split accordingly.
∫−1−1/2(2t2+t)dt−∫−1/20(2t2+t)dt+∫01(2t2+t)dt
Step 4:Use antiderivative 32t3+2t2 and sum the pieces.
245+241+67=1217
Step 5:Multiply by 12.
12×1217=17
Final answer: 17
Q23NumericalMatrices and Determinants
For some α,β∈R let A=[α122] and B=[111β] be such that A2−4A+2I=B2−3B+I=0 then (det(adj(A3−B3)))2 is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 225
Approach:
By the Cayley-Hamilton form M2−tr(M)M+det(M)I=0, match the given relations to fix α,β; compute A3,B3, take the difference, and apply det(adjM)=(detM)n−1 before squaring.
Step 1:Match A2−4A+2I=0: trace 4, determinant 2.
tr(A)=α+2=4⇒α=2;det(A)=2α−2=2
Step 2:Match B2−3B+I=0: trace 3, determinant 1.
tr(B)=1+β=3⇒β=2;det(B)=β−1=1
Step 3:Compute the matrix cubes.
A3=[20142820],B3=[58813]
Step 4:Form the difference and its determinant.
A3−B3=[156207],det=15(7)−20(6)=−15
Step 5:For n=2, det(adjM)=(detM)1.
det(adj(A3−B3))=−15
Step 6:Square the result.
(−15)2=225
Final answer: 225
Q24NumericalPermutations and Combinations
Let S={(m,n):m,n∈(1,2,3.....50)} if number of elements (m,n) In S such that 6m+9n is a multiple of 5 is P and the number of elements (m,n) in S such that m+n is a square of a prime number is Q then P+Q is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 1333
Approach:
Reduce 6m and 9n modulo 5 to count P (pairs with 6m+9n≡0), then enumerate m+n equal to a prime-square value with 1≤m,n≤50 to count Q, and add.
Step 1:Reduce the expression modulo 5.
6m+9n≡1m+(−1)n=1+(−1)n(mod5)
Step 2:Divisibility by 5 requires 1+(−1)n≡0, i.e. n odd.
nodd⇒1+(−1)n=0
Step 3:Count P: m any of 50 values, n any of the 25 odd values in 1..50.
P=50×25=1250
Step 4:Prime squares with 2≤m+n≤100 are 4,9,25,49; count pairs with 1≤m,n≤50.
3+8+24+48=83
Step 5:Add the two counts.
P+Q=1250+83=1333
Final answer: 1333
Q25NumericalLimits, Continuity and Differentiability
Let f:R→R be a twice differentiable function such that the quadratic equation f(x)m2−2f′(x)m+f′′(x)=0 In m, has two equal roots for every x∈R.If f(0)=1,f′(0)=2, and (α,β) is the largest interval in which the functions f(logex−x) is increasing, then α+β is equal to
SolutionAnswer: 1
Approach:
The equal-roots condition gives zero discriminant, leading to the ODE f′2=ff′′, equivalently f′=kf; solve with f(0)=1,f′(0)=2 to get f, then determine where g(x)=f(lnx−x) is increasing.
Step 1:Set the discriminant of f(x)m2−2f′(x)m+f′′(x)=0 to zero.
(2f′)2−4ff′′=0⇒f′2=ff′′
Step 2:Rearrange and integrate.
f′f′′=ff′⇒ln∣f′∣=ln∣f∣+c⇒f′=kf
Step 3:Apply initial data f(0)=1,f′(0)=2.
f′(0)=kf(0)⇒k=2⇒f(x)=e2x
Step 4:Differentiate g(x)=f(lnx−x)=e2(lnx−x) for x>0.
g′(x)=e2(lnx−x)⋅2(x1−1)
Step 5:Solve g′(x)>0; the exponential is positive, so the sign comes from x1−1.
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